Which of the following conditions can lead to bradyarrhythmias? A) Hyperthyroidism B) Hypothermia C) Anxiety D) Hypertension E) Diabetes
B) Hypothermia Explanation: Hypothermia is a condition that can lead to bradyarrhythmias, as it can slow down the heart rate significantly due to the body's decreased metabolic rate.
What is the typical QRS morphology in sinus rhythm? A) Wide QRS B) Irregular QRS C) Narrow QRS D) No QRS E) Bifascicular block
C) Narrow QRS Explanation: In sinus rhythm, the QRS complexes are typically narrow, which is a characteristic feature of this normal heart rhythm.
1/417
p.1
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Which of the following conditions can lead to bradyarrhythmias?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypothermia
C) Anxiety
D) Hypertension
E) Diabetes

B) Hypothermia
Explanation: Hypothermia is a condition that can lead to bradyarrhythmias, as it can slow down the heart rate significantly due to the body's decreased metabolic rate.

p.6
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the typical QRS morphology in sinus rhythm?
A) Wide QRS
B) Irregular QRS
C) Narrow QRS
D) No QRS
E) Bifascicular block

C) Narrow QRS
Explanation: In sinus rhythm, the QRS complexes are typically narrow, which is a characteristic feature of this normal heart rhythm.

p.2
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What does the learning objective regarding management of bradyarrhythmias entail?
A) Describe the mechanisms of arrhythmia development
B) Explain the management of each bradyarrhythmia
C) Differentiate between various types of tachyarrhythmias
D) Recognize the symptoms of heart failure
E) Analyze the effects of stress on heart rhythm

B) Explain the management of each bradyarrhythmia
Explanation: This objective focuses on understanding how to manage different types of bradyarrhythmias, which is essential for effective treatment and patient care.

p.6
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the definition of sinus rhythm?
A) Heart rates from 40 - 60 bpm
B) Heart rates from 60 - 100 bpm
C) Heart rates over 100 bpm
D) Irregular heart rates
E) Heart rates below 40 bpm

B) Heart rates from 60 - 100 bpm
Explanation: Sinus rhythm is defined as having heart rates between 60 and 100 beats per minute, indicating a normal heart rhythm.

p.8
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the heart rate range for sinus arrhythmia?
A) 40 - 60 bpm
B) 60 - 100 bpm
C) 100 - 120 bpm
D) 120 - 140 bpm
E) 140 - 160 bpm

B) 60 - 100 bpm
Explanation: Sinus arrhythmia is defined by a heart rate that ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute, indicating a regularly irregular rhythm that often varies with the respiratory cycle.

p.10
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What symptoms can occur with sinus bradycardia?
A) Always asymptomatic
B) Only confusion
C) Confusion, weakness, syncope
D) Chest pain only
E) Shortness of breath only

C) Confusion, weakness, syncope
Explanation: Symptoms of sinus bradycardia can vary widely, ranging from asymptomatic to more severe symptoms like confusion, weakness, and syncope.

p.1
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a bradyarrhythmia?
A) A rapid heart rate
B) An irregular heartbeat
C) A slow heart rate
D) A heart rate that varies widely
E) A heart rate that is normal

C) A slow heart rate
Explanation: Bradyarrhythmias are defined as slow heart rates, typically below 60 beats per minute, which can lead to various clinical symptoms and complications.

p.6
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What symptoms are associated with sinus rhythm?
A) Chest pain
B) It’s definitely not the heart
C) Dizziness
D) Palpitations
E) Shortness of breath

B) It’s definitely not the heart
Explanation: The symptoms associated with sinus rhythm indicate that there are no concerning symptoms related to heart issues, reinforcing that it is a normal rhythm.

p.3
AV Nodal Disease

What is First Degree AV Block?
A) A complete block of electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles
B) A delay in conduction through the atrioventricular node
C) A block that occurs only during exercise
D) A block that is always symptomatic
E) A block that affects only the right atrium

B) A delay in conduction through the atrioventricular node
Explanation: First Degree AV Block is characterized by a delay in conduction through the atrioventricular node, resulting in a prolonged PR interval on an EKG.

p.10
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Which of the following is a physiological cause of sinus bradycardia?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Medications
C) Athletes
D) Heart disease
E) Fever

C) Athletes
Explanation: Athletes often experience sinus bradycardia as a physiological adaptation to their training, especially during periods of rest or sleep.

p.11
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a common treatment for patients with Sick Sinus Syndrome experiencing bradycardia?
A) Medication to increase heart rate
B) Lifestyle changes
C) Pacemaker implantation
D) Surgical intervention on the heart valves
E) Increased physical activity

C) Pacemaker implantation
Explanation: Patients with Sick Sinus Syndrome who experience significant bradycardia often require pacemaker implantation as a treatment option to manage their heart rhythm effectively.

p.21
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a common treatment requirement for 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz II)?
A) Medication adjustment
B) Temporary pacing
C) Permanent pacing
D) Lifestyle changes
E) Surgery

C) Permanent pacing
Explanation: 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz II) generally requires permanent pacing to manage the condition effectively, as it can lead to significant bradycardia and associated symptoms.

p.4
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

How can heart rate be calculated using the number of QRS complexes?
A) HR = # of QRS Complexes x 4
B) HR = # of QRS Complexes x 8
C) HR = # of QRS Complexes x 6
D) HR = # of QRS Complexes x 10
E) HR = # of QRS Complexes x 12

C) HR = # of QRS Complexes x 6
Explanation: The heart rate can also be calculated by multiplying the number of QRS complexes observed in a 10-second interval by 6, providing a quick estimate of the heart rate.

p.6
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What intervention is recommended for sinus rhythm?
A) Immediate treatment
B) Surgical intervention
C) Please don’t treat this
D) Medication adjustment
E) Lifestyle changes

C) Please don’t treat this
Explanation: The recommendation for sinus rhythm is not to treat it, as it is a normal physiological state and does not require intervention.

p.3
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a Sinus Pause/Arrest?
A) A temporary cessation of electrical activity in the heart
B) A rapid increase in heart rate
C) A consistent heart rhythm
D) A heart rhythm with irregular intervals
E) A heart rhythm originating from the ventricles

A) A temporary cessation of electrical activity in the heart
Explanation: A Sinus Pause or Arrest refers to a temporary cessation of electrical activity in the heart, leading to a pause in the normal sinus rhythm.

p.11
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What are Tachy-Brady rhythms?
A) Alternating fast and slow heart rates
B) Consistently fast heart rates
C) Consistently slow heart rates
D) Irregular heart rhythms only
E) Heart rhythms with no variation

A) Alternating fast and slow heart rates
Explanation: Tachy-Brady rhythms refer to the alternating periods of fast heart rates (such as PSVT) and slow heart rates (like sinus bradycardia) that can occur in conditions like Sick Sinus Syndrome.

p.14
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What physiological condition can lead to Sinus Pause/Arrest?
A) High physical activity
B) During hours of sleep
C) Excessive caffeine intake
D) Emotional stress
E) Dehydration

B) During hours of sleep
Explanation: Sinus Pause/Arrest can occur physiologically during sleep, indicating that it can be a normal response of the body during rest.

p.1
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which of the following is a common symptom of bradyarrhythmias?
A) Palpitations
B) Dizziness
C) Chest pain
D) Shortness of breath
E) Increased heart rate

B) Dizziness
Explanation: Dizziness is a common symptom associated with bradyarrhythmias due to insufficient blood flow to the brain caused by a slow heart rate.

p.8
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

How does heart rate change during respiration in sinus arrhythmia?
A) Increases with expiration, decreases with inspiration
B) Stays constant regardless of respiration
C) Increases with inspiration, decreases with expiration
D) Decreases with both inspiration and expiration
E) Increases with both inspiration and expiration

C) Increases with inspiration, decreases with expiration
Explanation: In sinus arrhythmia, the heart rate increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration, reflecting the normal physiological response to breathing.

p.4
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the formula for calculating heart rate using the large block method?
A) HR = # of QRS Complexes x 10
B) HR = 300 / # of big boxes
C) HR = # of small boxes x 5
D) HR = # of beats x 4
E) HR = 1500 / # of small boxes

B) HR = 300 / # of big boxes
Explanation: The large block method for calculating heart rate states that the heart rate can be determined by dividing 300 by the number of large boxes between two consecutive R waves on an EKG.

p.10
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the definition of sinus bradycardia?
A) Heart rates <50 bpm
B) Heart rates <60 bpm, regular
C) Heart rates >100 bpm
D) Irregular heart rates
E) Heart rates <70 bpm

B) Heart rates <60 bpm, regular
Explanation: Sinus bradycardia is defined as having a heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute while maintaining a regular rhythm.

p.14
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the recommended intervention for Sinus Pause/Arrest if symptoms are unstable?
A) Increase physical activity
B) Administer medication
C) Temporary pacemaker if urgent/reversible
D) No intervention needed
E) Immediate surgery

C) Temporary pacemaker if urgent/reversible
Explanation: If a patient with Sinus Pause/Arrest is unstable, a temporary pacemaker may be necessary if the condition is urgent and reversible; otherwise, a permanent pacemaker may be required if the condition is irreversible.

p.19
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a common treatment requirement for 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz I)?
A) Always requires permanent pacing
B) Rarely requires permanent pacing
C) Requires immediate surgery
D) Requires medication only
E) Always resolves spontaneously

B) Rarely requires permanent pacing
Explanation: 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz I) rarely requires permanent pacing, indicating that many patients may not need invasive interventions.

p.3
AV Nodal Disease

What distinguishes Mobitz Type I from Mobitz Type II?
A) Mobitz Type I has a consistent PR interval
B) Mobitz Type II has a progressive lengthening of the PR interval
C) Mobitz Type I has a progressive lengthening of the PR interval
D) Mobitz Type II is always symptomatic
E) Mobitz Type I is more severe than Mobitz Type II

C) Mobitz Type I has a progressive lengthening of the PR interval
Explanation: Mobitz Type I, also known as Wenckebach, is characterized by a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped, while Mobitz Type II has a consistent PR interval with intermittent dropped beats.

p.2
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the focus of the learning objective related to EKG morphology?
A) Describe the mechanisms of arrhythmia development
B) Explain the management of each bradyarrhythmia
C) Recognize EKG morphology of the various bradyarrhythmias
D) Differentiate between heart murmurs and arrhythmias
E) Analyze the impact of lifestyle on heart health

C) Recognize EKG morphology of the various bradyarrhythmias
Explanation: This objective is centered on the ability to identify the EKG patterns associated with different bradyarrhythmias, which is crucial for accurate diagnosis.

p.18
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a pathological cause of 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz I)?
A) Increased physical fitness
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Dehydration
D) High altitude
E) Anxiety

B) Hyperkalemia
Explanation: Hyperkalemia is a pathological cause of Mobitz I, along with medications and acute inferior myocardial infarction, which can affect the conduction system of the heart.

p.24
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a common treatment for 3rd Degree AV Block (Complete)?
A) Medication adjustment
B) Emergent temporary pacing
C) Surgical intervention
D) Lifestyle changes
E) Observation only

B) Emergent temporary pacing
Explanation: In cases of 3rd Degree AV Block, emergent temporary pacing is generally needed to maintain adequate heart function and prevent complications associated with complete heart block.

p.25
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the recommended intervention for asymptomatic junctional escape rhythms?
A) Immediate defibrillation
B) Emergent temporary pacing
C) No immediate treatment needed
D) Administration of antiarrhythmic drugs
E) Surgical intervention

C) No immediate treatment needed
Explanation: If junctional escape rhythms are asymptomatic, no immediate treatment is required, as they may not pose an immediate risk to the patient.

p.29
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a key focus when describing the mechanisms of arrhythmia development?
A) The role of exercise in heart health
B) The impact of diet on heart rhythm
C) The physiological and electrical changes in the heart
D) The effects of medication on heart rate
E) The influence of age on heart conditions

C) The physiological and electrical changes in the heart
Explanation: Understanding the mechanisms of arrhythmia development involves examining the physiological and electrical changes that occur in the heart, which are crucial for identifying the causes of arrhythmias.

p.1
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the primary treatment for symptomatic bradyarrhythmias?
A) Anticoagulants
B) Pacemaker implantation
C) Beta-blockers
D) Cardioversion
E) Lifestyle changes

B) Pacemaker implantation
Explanation: The primary treatment for symptomatic bradyarrhythmias often involves the implantation of a pacemaker to regulate the heart rate and improve symptoms.

p.8
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What symptoms are typically associated with sinus arrhythmia?
A) Severe chest pain
B) It’s probably not the heart
C) Dizziness and fainting
D) Palpitations
E) Shortness of breath

B) It’s probably not the heart
Explanation: Sinus arrhythmia is generally asymptomatic, and the statement 'It’s probably not the heart' suggests that this condition is not typically associated with heart-related symptoms.

p.10
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What should be done if a patient with sinus bradycardia is asymptomatic?
A) Immediate treatment is required
B) Evaluate for root cause
C) Administer ACLS
D) Place a permanent pacer
E) No further action needed

B) Evaluate for root cause
Explanation: In cases of asymptomatic sinus bradycardia, it is crucial to evaluate for the underlying cause, even if the heart rate is in the 40s, as no treatment is needed if the patient is stable.

p.22
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Which type of Mobitz block is generally considered more serious?
A) Mobitz I
B) Mobitz II
C) Both are equally serious
D) Neither is serious
E) Both are benign

B) Mobitz II
Explanation: Mobitz II is generally considered more serious than Mobitz I because it has a higher risk of progressing to complete heart block, which can lead to more severe complications.

p.23
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is a potential symptom of 3rd Degree AV Block?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Chest pain
C) High risk for sudden cardiac death
D) Frequent urination
E) Dizziness only during exercise

C) High risk for sudden cardiac death
Explanation: Symptoms of 3rd Degree AV Block often depend on the 'escape rhythm,' and there is a high risk for sudden cardiac death due to the dissociation of atrial and ventricular beats.

p.25
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the intervention for symptomatic ventricular escape rhythms?
A) Observation
B) Emergent temporary pacing
C) Medication adjustment
D) Lifestyle changes
E) Long-term pacing

B) Emergent temporary pacing
Explanation: For symptomatic ventricular escape rhythms, emergent temporary pacing is necessary to stabilize the patient's heart rate and prevent further complications.

p.28
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

Which of the following is a common type of supraventricular arrhythmia?
A) Ventricular tachycardia
B) Atrial fibrillation
C) Torsades de pointes
D) Ventricular fibrillation
E) Heart block

B) Atrial fibrillation
Explanation: Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common types of supraventricular arrhythmias, characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria.

p.6
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is the physiological etiology of sinus rhythm?
A) It’s abnormal
B) It’s normal
C) It’s caused by medication
D) It’s due to heart disease
E) It’s due to stress

B) It’s normal
Explanation: The physiological etiology of sinus rhythm is that it is considered normal, indicating a healthy heart function.

p.3
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the definition of Sinus Rhythm?
A) A heart rhythm originating from the atrioventricular node
B) A normal heart rhythm originating from the sinoatrial node
C) A heart rhythm characterized by irregular beats
D) A heart rhythm with a rate below 60 beats per minute
E) A heart rhythm caused by ectopic foci

B) A normal heart rhythm originating from the sinoatrial node
Explanation: Sinus Rhythm refers to the normal heart rhythm that originates from the sinoatrial node, indicating proper electrical activity in the heart.

p.2
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Which learning objective focuses on distinguishing types of bradyarrhythmias?
A) Explain the management of each bradyarrhythmia
B) Differentiate between the various bradyarrhythmias in terms of etiology, risk factors, and symptoms
C) Recognize EKG morphology of the various bradyarrhythmias
D) Describe the mechanisms of arrhythmia development
E) Analyze the effects of medications on heart rhythm

B) Differentiate between the various bradyarrhythmias in terms of etiology, risk factors, and symptoms
Explanation: This objective emphasizes the importance of understanding the different types of bradyarrhythmias, including their causes, risk factors, and symptoms.

p.18
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What intervention is suggested for symptomatic or unstable patients with 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz I)?
A) Observation only
B) Atropine and temporary pacing
C) Increase fluid intake
D) Bed rest
E) Long-term medication therapy

B) Atropine and temporary pacing
Explanation: For symptomatic or unstable patients, atropine and temporary pacing are recommended interventions to manage the condition effectively.

p.22
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a common treatment approach for symptomatic Mobitz II?
A) Observation only
B) Medication to increase heart rate
C) Pacemaker insertion
D) Lifestyle changes
E) Increased fluid intake

C) Pacemaker insertion
Explanation: Symptomatic Mobitz II often requires a pacemaker insertion to prevent complications associated with potential complete heart block, as it poses a greater risk than Mobitz I.

p.4
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the significance of the heart rate calculation in EKG interpretation?
A) It helps determine the patient's blood pressure
B) It assesses the patient's respiratory rate
C) It provides insight into the heart's rhythm and function
D) It measures the patient's temperature
E) It evaluates the patient's oxygen saturation

C) It provides insight into the heart's rhythm and function
Explanation: Calculating the heart rate is crucial in EKG interpretation as it helps assess the heart's rhythm and overall function, which is vital for diagnosing various cardiac conditions.

p.10
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a pathological cause of sinus bradycardia?
A) High altitude
B) Athletes
C) Medications
D) Stress
E) Exercise

C) Medications
Explanation: Certain medications can lead to sinus bradycardia as a pathological cause, alongside conditions like hypothyroidism.

p.11
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What challenge is associated with treating fast heart rates in Sick Sinus Syndrome?
A) It leads to heart failure
B) It can worsen bradycardia
C) It is always successful
D) It requires surgery
E) It has no side effects

B) It can worsen bradycardia
Explanation: One of the challenges in treating fast heart rates in patients with Sick Sinus Syndrome is that interventions may exacerbate existing bradycardia, complicating management.

p.16
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What characterizes First Degree AV Block?
A) Prolonged PR interval (>200 ms)
B) Dropped beats
C) Constant PR interval
D) No P waves
E) Irregular QRS complexes

A) Prolonged PR interval (>200 ms)
Explanation: First Degree AV Block is defined by a prolonged PR interval greater than 200 ms, indicating a delay in the conduction through the AV node.

p.17
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What symptoms are typically associated with First Degree AV Block?
A) Severe chest pain
B) Often none if HR is normal
C) Palpitations
D) Syncope
E) Shortness of breath

B) Often none if HR is normal
Explanation: Patients with First Degree AV Block often experience no symptoms if their heart rate remains normal, making it frequently asymptomatic.

p.22
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a key characteristic of Mobitz I (Wenckebach) block?
A) Progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped
B) Constant PR interval with occasional dropped beats
C) No dropped beats
D) A sudden increase in heart rate
E) A decrease in heart rate with every beat

A) Progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped
Explanation: Mobitz I, also known as Wenckebach, is characterized by a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped, indicating a type of second-degree AV block.

p.27
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What does the P wave represent in an EKG?
A) Ventricular depolarization
B) Atrial depolarization
C) Ventricular repolarization
D) Atrial repolarization
E) Heart rate

B) Atrial depolarization
Explanation: The P wave in an EKG represents atrial depolarization, indicating the electrical activity that triggers atrial contraction.

p.1
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the typical heart rate range for bradyarrhythmias?
A) 60-100 beats per minute
B) Below 60 beats per minute
C) 100-120 beats per minute
D) 40-60 beats per minute
E) Above 100 beats per minute

B) Below 60 beats per minute
Explanation: Bradyarrhythmias are characterized by a heart rate that is below 60 beats per minute, indicating a slower than normal heart rhythm.

p.8
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the recommended intervention for sinus arrhythmia?
A) Immediate medication
B) Surgical intervention
C) Please don’t treat this
D) Lifestyle changes
E) Regular monitoring

C) Please don’t treat this
Explanation: The recommendation for sinus arrhythmia is to avoid treatment, as it is a normal physiological phenomenon and does not require intervention.

p.14
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the definition of Sinus Pause/Arrest?
A) Constant high heart rate
B) Variable heart rate with periods of absent SA beats
C) Consistent low heart rate
D) Sudden increase in heart rate
E) Regular heart rhythm with no interruptions

B) Variable heart rate with periods of absent SA beats
Explanation: Sinus Pause/Arrest is characterized by a variable heart rate and periods where the sinoatrial (SA) node fails to produce beats, which may or may not be followed by escape beats.

p.17
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the defining characteristic of First Degree AV Block?
A) Shortened PR interval
B) Prolonged PR interval (>200ms)
C) Irregular QRS duration
D) Increased heart rate
E) Decreased heart rate

B) Prolonged PR interval (>200ms)
Explanation: First Degree AV Block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval greater than 200 milliseconds, which is equivalent to one big box on an EKG.

p.22
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

In which population is Mobitz I more commonly observed?
A) Elderly patients
B) Young athletes
C) Patients with heart failure
D) Pregnant women
E) Children

A) Elderly patients
Explanation: Mobitz I is more commonly observed in elderly patients, often due to degenerative changes in the conduction system, while Mobitz II can occur in various populations.

p.23
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a common treatment for 3rd Degree AV Block?
A) Beta-blockers
B) ACLS and permanent pacer
C) Diuretics
D) Anticoagulants
E) Lifestyle changes

B) ACLS and permanent pacer
Explanation: The treatment for 3rd Degree AV Block often involves Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) and the placement of a permanent pacemaker, as it is poorly responsive to atropine.

p.28
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is a potential symptom of supraventricular arrhythmias?
A) Chest pain
B) Nausea
C) Dizziness
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

D) All of the above
Explanation: Symptoms of supraventricular arrhythmias can include chest pain, nausea, and dizziness, among others, reflecting the varied impact these arrhythmias can have on patients.

p.30
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What distinguishes AV Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVNRT)?
A) It is caused by atrial fibrillation
B) It involves a re-entrant circuit within the AV node
C) It originates from the ventricles
D) It is always asymptomatic
E) It is a type of ventricular tachycardia

B) It involves a re-entrant circuit within the AV node
Explanation: AVNRT is characterized by a re-entrant circuit that occurs within the AV node, leading to rapid heart rates and often presenting with palpitations.

p.2
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is one of the primary learning objectives regarding arrhythmias?
A) Describe the mechanisms of arrhythmia development
B) Identify the causes of heart attacks
C) Explain the anatomy of the heart
D) Discuss the history of cardiology
E) Analyze the effects of exercise on heart rate

A) Describe the mechanisms of arrhythmia development
Explanation: One of the key learning objectives is to describe the mechanisms that lead to the development of arrhythmias, which is fundamental for understanding their nature and treatment.

p.8
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the physiological etiology of sinus arrhythmia?
A) It’s abnormal
B) It’s normal
C) It’s caused by medication
D) It’s due to heart disease
E) It’s due to stress

B) It’s normal
Explanation: The physiological etiology of sinus arrhythmia is considered normal, indicating that this condition is a common and benign variation in heart rhythm.

p.11
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is Sick Sinus Syndrome (SSS)?
A) A disease of the heart valves
B) A disease of the sinus node
C) A type of ventricular arrhythmia
D) A condition affecting the atrioventricular node
E) A type of heart failure

B) A disease of the sinus node
Explanation: Sick Sinus Syndrome (SSS) is specifically described as a disease of the sinus node, leading to periods of sinus bradycardia or sinus pauses, which can alternate with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias.

p.16
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

How does Mobitz II Second Degree AV Block differ from Mobitz I?
A) It has a progressively prolonging PR interval
B) It has a constant PR interval
C) It has no dropped beats
D) It has a shorter PR interval
E) It has irregular QRS complexes

B) It has a constant PR interval
Explanation: Mobitz II is characterized by a constant (often prolonged) PR interval followed by a dropped beat, distinguishing it from Mobitz I, which features a progressively prolonging PR interval.

p.21
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Where is the level of block typically found in 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz II)?
A) Above the AV node
B) At the Bundle of His
C) Below the AV node, above the Bundle of His
D) In the atria
E) In the ventricles

C) Below the AV node, above the Bundle of His
Explanation: In 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz II), the level of block is generally located below the AV node and above the Bundle of His, which is crucial for understanding the conduction pathway affected.

p.23
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

Which of the following is poorly responsive in 3rd Degree AV Block?
A) Digoxin
B) Atropine
C) Amiodarone
D) Adenosine
E) Beta-blockers

B) Atropine
Explanation: In cases of 3rd Degree AV Block, atropine is poorly responsive, making it less effective as a treatment option compared to the need for a permanent pacemaker.

p.25
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a characteristic of junctional escape rhythms?
A) Wide QRS complex
B) Narrow QRS complex
C) Heart rate above 80 bpm
D) Heart rate below 20 bpm
E) Irregular rhythm

B) Narrow QRS complex
Explanation: Junctional escape rhythms typically present with a narrow QRS complex, similar to atrial escape rhythms, and have a heart rate range of 40 to 60 bpm.

p.29
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a key difference between typical and atypical AV nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT)?
A) Their heart rate
B) Their response to medication
C) Their underlying mechanisms
D) Their occurrence in different age groups
E) Their symptoms

C) Their underlying mechanisms
Explanation: Typical and atypical AVNRT differ primarily in their underlying mechanisms, which influences their clinical presentation and management strategies.

p.36
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a common factor that can lead to both EAD and DAD?
A) Genetic mutations
B) Drug toxicity
C) Ischemia
D) High levels of catecholamines
E) Electrolyte abnormalities

B) Drug toxicity
Explanation: Drug toxicity, especially from antiarrhythmic drugs, is a common factor that can lead to EAD, while DAD can also be influenced by other factors like hypercalcemia and catecholamines.

p.39
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is the difference between unifocal and multifocal PACs?
A) Unifocal occurs from multiple ectopic foci, while multifocal occurs from a single ectopic focus
B) Unifocal occurs from a single ectopic focus, while multifocal occurs from two or more ectopic foci
C) Unifocal is always symptomatic, while multifocal is asymptomatic
D) Unifocal has a longer QRS duration than multifocal
E) There is no difference between unifocal and multifocal PACs

B) Unifocal occurs from a single ectopic focus, while multifocal occurs from two or more ectopic foci
Explanation: Unifocal PACs originate from a single ectopic focus, while multifocal PACs arise from two or more ectopic foci, indicating different origins of the premature contractions.

p.46
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is the typical heart rate range for adults experiencing AVNRT?
A) 60 - 100 bpm
B) 100 - 150 bpm
C) 150 - 200 bpm
D) 200 - 250 bpm
E) 250 - 300 bpm

C) 150 - 200 bpm
Explanation: In adults, the heart rate during AVNRT generally ranges from 150 to 200 bpm, but it can exceed 250 bpm in children, indicating the tachycardic nature of this arrhythmia.

p.3
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What characterizes Sinus Bradycardia?
A) Heart rate exceeding 100 beats per minute
B) Heart rate below 60 beats per minute
C) Irregular heartbeats
D) Heart rate between 60 and 100 beats per minute
E) Heart rate fluctuating between fast and slow

B) Heart rate below 60 beats per minute
Explanation: Sinus Bradycardia is characterized by a heart rate that is below 60 beats per minute, indicating a slower than normal heart rhythm.

p.10
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What intervention is recommended for symptomatic or unstable sinus bradycardia?
A) Observation only
B) ACLS and possible permanent pacer
C) Increase physical activity
D) Administer fluids
E) No intervention needed

B) ACLS and possible permanent pacer
Explanation: For patients who are symptomatic or unstable due to sinus bradycardia, advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) measures should be taken, and a permanent pacemaker may be necessary if the condition is irreversible.

p.14
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What symptoms might a patient experience while awake due to Sinus Pause/Arrest?
A) Increased energy
B) Near syncope or syncope
C) Elevated heart rate
D) Shortness of breath
E) Chest pain

B) Near syncope or syncope
Explanation: Patients may experience near syncope or syncope while awake due to the irregular heart rhythms associated with Sinus Pause/Arrest.

p.18
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the recommended intervention for asymptomatic patients with 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz I)?
A) Immediate surgery
B) Medication to increase heart rate
C) Monitoring for improvement/progression of disease
D) Permanent pacemaker insertion
E) Electrical cardioversion

C) Monitoring for improvement/progression of disease
Explanation: For asymptomatic patients, the recommended intervention is to monitor for any improvement or progression of the disease rather than immediate treatment.

p.26
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Where is the location of a junctional escape rhythm?
A) Above the AV node
B) Below the AV node
C) In the left atrium
D) In the right ventricle
E) In the sinoatrial node

A) Above the AV node
Explanation: Junctional escape rhythms originate from the AV node or above, indicating that the impulse is generated in the junctional area of the heart.

p.25
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the heart rate range for atrial escape rhythms?
A) 20 - 50 bpm
B) 30 - 80 bpm
C) 40 - 60 bpm
D) 60 - 100 bpm
E) 80 - 120 bpm

B) 30 - 80 bpm
Explanation: Atrial escape rhythms are defined by a heart rate range of 30 to 80 beats per minute, indicating a slower rhythm that can occur when the primary pacemaker fails.

p.28
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of supraventricular arrhythmias?
A) Reentry circuits
B) Enhanced automaticity
C) Triggered activity
D) Myocardial infarction
E) Atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia

D) Myocardial infarction
Explanation: Myocardial infarction is not a mechanism of supraventricular arrhythmias; rather, it is a condition that can lead to various arrhythmias, including those originating from the ventricles.

p.20
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What intervention is generally required for 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz II)?
A) Medication adjustment
B) Lifestyle changes
C) Pacemaker implantation
D) Surgical intervention
E) Observation only

C) Pacemaker implantation
Explanation: Mobitz II generally requires pacemaker implantation as an intervention due to the risk of severe bradycardia and associated symptoms, making it a critical treatment option.

p.33
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a common feature of abnormal conduction in arrhythmias?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Conduction delay
C) Normal conduction speed
D) Decreased impulse frequency
E) Regular rhythm

B) Conduction delay
Explanation: Conduction delay is a significant aspect of abnormal conduction in arrhythmias, which can lead to irregular heart rhythms and other complications.

p.37
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a key characteristic of re-entry arrhythmias?
A) They are always continuous
B) They require specific tissue conditions
C) They are caused by heart failure
D) They are always asymptomatic
E) They occur only in the atria

B) They require specific tissue conditions
Explanation: Re-entry arrhythmias occur when a depolarization impulse encounters two regions of conducting tissue with differing conduction velocities and refractory periods, requiring specific tissue conditions to induce a re-entrant circuit.

p.16
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the hallmark of Mobitz I Second Degree AV Block?
A) Constant PR interval
B) Dropped beats after a constant PR
C) Progressively prolonging PR interval
D) No P waves
E) Irregular QRS complexes

C) Progressively prolonging PR interval
Explanation: Mobitz I, also known as Wenckebach, is characterized by a progressively prolonging PR interval followed by a dropped beat, indicating a pattern of AV conduction failure.

p.17
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the recommended intervention for First Degree AV Block?
A) Immediate pacemaker insertion
B) Treat underlying cause of symptoms
C) Administer antiarrhythmic medication
D) Perform cardioversion
E) Increase physical activity

B) Treat underlying cause of symptoms
Explanation: The primary intervention for First Degree AV Block is to treat any underlying causes of symptoms and to observe for potential progression to more advanced AV nodal block.

p.18
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What symptoms are commonly associated with 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz I)?
A) Always symptomatic with chest pain
B) Often transient, often no symptoms
C) Constant high heart rate
D) Severe shortness of breath
E) Persistent syncope

B) Often transient, often no symptoms
Explanation: Mobitz I is often transient and may not present any symptoms; however, if the heart rate is slow, it can lead to lightheadedness, near syncope, or syncope.

p.24
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a characteristic feature of 3rd Degree AV Block?
A) Increased heart rate
B) AV dissociation
C) Regular heart rhythm
D) Complete heart block
E) Ventricular tachycardia

B) AV dissociation
Explanation: A key characteristic of 3rd Degree AV Block is AV dissociation, where the atria and ventricles beat independently of each other, leading to a lack of coordination in heart contractions.

p.23
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a common etiology of 3rd Degree AV Block?
A) Hypertension
B) Congenital factors
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Atrial fibrillation
E) Heart valve disease

B) Congenital factors
Explanation: While rare, 3rd Degree AV Block can be present congenitally, making it a physiological cause. Other pathological causes include digoxin toxicity and Lyme disease.

p.28
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What are supraventricular arrhythmias primarily characterized by?
A) Originating from the ventricles
B) Originating above the ventricles
C) Causing bradycardia
D) Being asymptomatic
E) Occurring only in children

B) Originating above the ventricles
Explanation: Supraventricular arrhythmias are defined by their origin from structures above the ventricles, such as the atria or the atrioventricular node, distinguishing them from ventricular arrhythmias.

p.30
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is the primary feature of Sinus Tachycardia?
A) It is caused by a block in the AV node
B) It involves a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute
C) It is characterized by irregularly timed beats
D) It originates from the ventricles
E) It is a type of atrial flutter

B) It involves a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute
Explanation: Sinus Tachycardia is defined by a heart rate exceeding 100 beats per minute, typically resulting from physiological responses such as exercise or stress.

p.29
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

Which of the following is a major clinical type of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?
A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Ventricular tachycardia
C) Atrial flutter
D) Sinus bradycardia
E) Ventricular fibrillation

C) Atrial flutter
Explanation: Atrial flutter is one of the major clinical types of SVT, characterized by specific presentations, mechanisms, and EKG manifestations that differentiate it from other arrhythmias.

p.36
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a common etiology for Early Afterdepolarizations (EAD)?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Cardiac tissues exposed to hypoxia
C) High levels of catecholamines
D) Digitalis toxicity
E) Genetic mutations

B) Cardiac tissues exposed to hypoxia
Explanation: EADs are often caused by cardiac tissues being exposed to hypoxia (ischemia), along with electrolyte abnormalities and drug toxicity, particularly from antiarrhythmic drugs.

p.40
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the recommended intervention for asymptomatic PACs?
A) Immediate hospitalization
B) Let sleeping dogs lie
C) Start anticoagulation therapy
D) Perform emergency ablation
E) Initiate cardioversion

B) Let sleeping dogs lie
Explanation: For asymptomatic PACs, the recommended approach is to monitor the condition without immediate intervention, as it is often benign.

p.42
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following is a physiological cause of Sinus Tachycardia?
A) Heart failure
B) Exercise
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Atrial fibrillation
E) Ventricular tachycardia

B) Exercise
Explanation: Exercise is a common physiological cause of Sinus Tachycardia, as it is a normal response of the body to increased physical activity and emotional states.

p.11
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Which arrhythmias may alternate with sinus bradycardia in Sick Sinus Syndrome?
A) Ventricular fibrillation
B) Atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or atrial tachycardias
C) Complete heart block
D) Junctional rhythms
E) Premature ventricular contractions

B) Atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or atrial tachycardias
Explanation: Sick Sinus Syndrome can lead to periods of sinus bradycardia that alternate with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias, including atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or atrial tachycardias.

p.14
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following is a pathological cause of Sinus Pause/Arrest?
A) Increased hydration
B) High vagal tone
C) Regular exercise
D) Low blood pressure
E) Increased heart rate

B) High vagal tone
Explanation: Pathological causes of Sinus Pause/Arrest include high vagal tone and certain medications, as well as conditions like sleep apnea, which can affect heart rhythm.

p.22
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

How does Mobitz II differ from Mobitz I?
A) It has a variable PR interval
B) It has a constant PR interval with dropped beats
C) It is more common in young athletes
D) It is always asymptomatic
E) It is characterized by a progressive increase in heart rate

B) It has a constant PR interval with dropped beats
Explanation: Mobitz II is characterized by a constant PR interval with occasional dropped beats, making it more dangerous than Mobitz I due to a higher risk of progressing to complete heart block.

p.23
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What characterizes a 3rd Degree AV Block (Complete)?
A) Atria and ventricles beat in sync
B) Atrial rate is generally less than ventricular rate
C) Atria and ventricular beats are dissociated
D) Ventricular rate is always faster than atrial rate
E) There is no dissociation between P-waves and QRS complexes

C) Atria and ventricular beats are dissociated
Explanation: In a 3rd Degree AV Block, the atrial (P-wave) and ventricular (QRS) beats are dissociated, meaning they do not coordinate with each other, which is a key characteristic of this condition.

p.27
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What does a prolonged QRS complex indicate?
A) Normal heart function
B) Atrial enlargement
C) Ventricular hypertrophy or conduction delay
D) Dehydration
E) High blood pressure

C) Ventricular hypertrophy or conduction delay
Explanation: A prolonged QRS complex can indicate issues such as ventricular hypertrophy or a conduction delay, suggesting abnormalities in the heart's electrical conduction system.

p.20
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a common etiology for 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz II)?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Chronic hypertension
D) Atrial fibrillation
E) Pulmonary embolism

B) Hyperkalemia
Explanation: Hyperkalemia is one of the pathological causes associated with Mobitz II, along with acute anterior myocardial infarction (MI), which can lead to this type of AV block.

p.31
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

Where is the initial focus of depolarization in supraventricular arrhythmias?
A) In the ventricles
B) At the level of the AV node
C) In the bundle branches
D) In the Purkinje fibers
E) In the interventricular septum

B) At the level of the AV node
Explanation: In supraventricular arrhythmias, the initial focus of depolarization is at the level of the AV node or higher, such as the SA node or atria, indicating that the abnormal impulses originate above the ventricles.

p.31
Management of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

What does the ventricular rate in SVT depend on?
A) Atrial conduction only
B) Conduction through the AV node
C) The SA node only
D) The Purkinje fibers
E) The atrial rate only

B) Conduction through the AV node
Explanation: The ventricular rate in supraventricular tachyarrhythmias depends on conduction through the AV node and, in some cases, accessory pathways, which can influence how impulses are transmitted to the ventricles.

p.34
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What are early after depolarizations (EADs)?
A) Depolarization events before repolarization
B) Depolarization events during repolarization
C) Depolarization events after repolarization
D) Normal pacemaker activity
E) A type of arrhythmia

B) Depolarization events during repolarization
Explanation: Early after depolarizations (EADs) are depolarization events that occur during the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential.

p.37
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a common result of conduction delay in the heart?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Irregular heartbeats
C) Slowing of the heart rate
D) Complete heart block
E) Ventricular fibrillation

C) Slowing of the heart rate
Explanation: Conduction delay, such as from AV conduction block, results in a slowing of the heart rate, which is a key characteristic of this type of arrhythmia.

p.39
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What factors can contribute to the occurrence of PACs?
A) Only genetic predisposition
B) Heavy caffeine use and increased physical activity
C) A sedentary lifestyle
D) Low blood pressure
E) High cholesterol levels

B) Heavy caffeine use and increased physical activity
Explanation: PACs can be physiological, commonly occurring in healthy individuals, and are often exacerbated by factors such as heavy caffeine use and increased physical activity.

p.16
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What defines a Third Degree AV Block (Complete Heart Block)?
A) Irregular PR intervals
B) Sinus beats with no relation to QRS complexes
C) Constant PR interval
D) Prolonged PR interval
E) Dropped beats after a constant PR

B) Sinus beats with no relation to QRS complexes
Explanation: In Third Degree AV Block, also known as Complete Heart Block, there is a complete dissociation between the atrial (P wave) and ventricular (QRS complex) activity, meaning sinus beats occur without any relation to the QRS complexes.

p.17
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Which of the following is a pathological cause of First Degree AV Block?
A) Increased exercise
B) Increased vagal tone
C) Dehydration
D) Hyperthyroidism
E) Atrial flutter

B) Increased vagal tone
Explanation: Increased vagal tone and inferior myocardial infarction (MI) are recognized pathological causes of First Degree AV Block.

p.25
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What can cause escape rhythms to arise?
A) Increased physical activity
B) Dysfunction of the native conduction system
C) High caffeine intake
D) Excessive hydration
E) Normal aging process

B) Dysfunction of the native conduction system
Explanation: Escape rhythms generally arise secondary to dysfunction of the native conduction system, such as severe sinus bradycardia or third-degree heart block.

p.30
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a common feature of Atrial Fibrillation?
A) Regularly timed heartbeats
B) Atrial contraction is effective
C) Chaotic electrical activity in the atria
D) It is always symptomatic
E) It originates from the ventricles

C) Chaotic electrical activity in the atria
Explanation: Atrial Fibrillation is characterized by chaotic electrical activity in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heart rate, which can result in various symptoms.

p.31
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What defines supraventricular tachyarrhythmias (SVT)?
A) Atrial rates < 60 bpm
B) Atrial rates > 100 bpm
C) Ventricular rates > 120 bpm
D) Atrial rates = 80 bpm
E) Ventricular rates < 60 bpm

B) Atrial rates > 100 bpm
Explanation: Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias (SVT) are characterized by atrial rates exceeding 100 beats per minute, indicating a rapid heart rhythm originating above the ventricles.

p.37
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Why are re-entrant rhythms often described as paroxysmal?
A) They are always fatal
B) They are intermittent
C) They occur only in children
D) They are caused by medication
E) They are predictable

B) They are intermittent
Explanation: Re-entrant rhythms are often paroxysmal, meaning they occur intermittently, due to the specific conditions required to induce the re-entrant circuit.

p.40
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What are the symptoms of Premature Atrial Contractions (PACs)?
A) Always severe chest pain
B) Asymptomatic to palpitations
C) Only dizziness
D) Constant fatigue
E) Shortness of breath only

B) Asymptomatic to palpitations
Explanation: PACs can present with a range of symptoms, from being completely asymptomatic to causing palpitations, with higher frequency leading to more noticeable symptoms.

p.42
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a characteristic feature of P waves in Sinus Tachycardia?
A) Absent P waves
B) Inverted P waves
C) Normal P wave morphology
D) Wide P waves
E) Irregular P waves

C) Normal P wave morphology
Explanation: In Sinus Tachycardia, the P waves maintain normal morphology and are generated from the sinus node, indicating a proper electrical conduction pathway.

p.44
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which symptom is sometimes associated with inappropriate sinus tachycardia?
A) Dizziness
B) Chest pain
C) Fatigue
D) Shortness of breath
E) Nausea

C) Fatigue
Explanation: Inappropriate sinus tachycardia can sometimes be associated with fatigue, and patients may also feel a sensation of a 'fast beating' heart.

p.50
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is the typical heart rate range for AVNRT?
A) 60-100 bpm
B) 100-160 bpm
C) 160-200 bpm
D) 40-60 bpm
E) 200-240 bpm

B) 100-160 bpm
Explanation: The typical heart rate range for AVNRT is usually between 100 and 160 beats per minute, indicating a rapid heart rhythm.

p.52
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is a common symptom experienced by patients with incessant supraventricular tachycardia?
A) Dizziness
B) Weight gain
C) Skin rash
D) Fever
E) Nausea

A) Dizziness
Explanation: Patients with incessant supraventricular tachycardia often experience dizziness due to the rapid heart rate affecting blood flow and oxygen delivery to the brain.

p.55
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the curative treatment for chronic, recurrent AVNRT?
A) Vagal maneuvers
B) Antiarrhythmics
C) Catheter ablation of the slow pathway
D) Adenosine
E) Digoxin

C) Catheter ablation of the slow pathway
Explanation: Catheter ablation of the slow pathway is considered a curative treatment for chronic, recurrent AVNRT, with a success rate of approximately 95%.

p.57
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a key difference between Manifest and Concealed Accessory Pathways?
A) Manifest pathways are always symptomatic, while concealed are not
B) Concealed pathways can be detected on an EKG, while manifest cannot
C) Manifest pathways can lead to arrhythmias, while concealed do not
D) Concealed pathways are more common in older adults
E) Manifest pathways are less dangerous than concealed pathways

A) Manifest pathways are always symptomatic, while concealed are not
Explanation: The key difference is that Manifest Accessory Pathways are typically symptomatic and can lead to arrhythmias, whereas Concealed Accessory Pathways are usually asymptomatic and may only be identified under specific conditions.

p.62
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

In Antidromic AVRT, what is typically observed regarding P-waves?
A) P-waves are always visible
B) P-waves can be hard to see
C) P-waves are inverted
D) P-waves are absent
E) P-waves are prominent

B) P-waves can be hard to see
Explanation: In Antidromic AVRT, P-waves can be difficult to visualize due to the nature of the tachycardia and the wide QRS complex.

p.19
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Where is the level of block typically found in 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz I)?
A) Below the AV node
B) At the Bundle of His
C) Above the AV node, above the Bundle of His
D) In the ventricles
E) In the atria

C) Above the AV node, above the Bundle of His
Explanation: In 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz I), the level of block is generally located above the AV node and above the Bundle of His, which is crucial for understanding the conduction pathway affected.

p.17
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a common physiological cause of First Degree AV Block?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Decreased vagal tone
C) Normal hearts
D) Atrial fibrillation
E) Ventricular tachycardia

C) Normal hearts
Explanation: First Degree AV Block is often seen in normal hearts as a physiological phenomenon, indicating that it can occur without underlying pathology.

p.18
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What characterizes a 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz I)?
A) Constant PR interval
B) Progressively prolonging PR interval followed by a dropped beat
C) Shortened PR interval
D) No dropped beats
E) Irregular P-P intervals

B) Progressively prolonging PR interval followed by a dropped beat
Explanation: Mobitz I is defined by a progressively prolonging PR interval that ultimately leads to a dropped beat, known as the Wenckebach phenomenon.

p.26
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What can escape rhythms represent?
A) Only a single beat
B) Only multiple beats
C) Either a single beat or multiple beats
D) Only atrial beats
E) Only junctional beats

C) Either a single beat or multiple beats
Explanation: Escape rhythms can represent either a single beat or multiple beats, depending on the underlying rhythm and the focus of impulse generation.

p.27
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the primary purpose of an EKG?
A) To measure blood pressure
B) To assess heart rhythm and electrical activity
C) To evaluate lung function
D) To determine cholesterol levels
E) To check for diabetes

B) To assess heart rhythm and electrical activity
Explanation: An EKG (electrocardiogram) is primarily used to assess the heart's rhythm and electrical activity, providing crucial information about heart health.

p.31
EKG Morphology of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

What is the typical QRS complex duration in supraventricular arrhythmias?
A) > 120 ms
B) < 120 ms
C) = 150 ms
D) = 100 ms
E) < 80 ms

B) < 120 ms
Explanation: Supraventricular arrhythmias generally result in a narrow QRS complex of less than 120 ms, unless there is underlying conduction disease affecting the His-Purkinje system.

p.33
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What mechanism involves the re-excitation of a cardiac impulse?
A) Abnormal automaticity
B) Triggered activity
C) Re-entry
D) Conduction delay
E) Normal conduction

C) Re-entry
Explanation: Re-entry is a mechanism where a cardiac impulse is re-excited, often due to a conduction block, leading to arrhythmias.

p.36
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What condition is associated with Long-QT syndromes?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Drug toxicity
C) Ischemia
D) High levels of catecholamines
E) Gene mutations

B) Drug toxicity
Explanation: Long-QT syndromes can be acquired or genetic and are often associated with drug toxicity, particularly from antiarrhythmic medications.

p.40
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is considered when treating high PAC burden or symptomatic unifocal PACs?
A) Only lifestyle changes
B) Consideration for ablation
C) Immediate surgery
D) Only medication adjustment
E) No treatment necessary

B) Consideration for ablation
Explanation: In cases of high PAC burden or symptomatic unifocal PACs, treatment may include medication and consideration for ablation if symptoms persist or worsen.

p.47
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which pathway in AVNRT has a shorter refractory period?
A) Fast pathway
B) Slow pathway
C) Both pathways have the same refractory period
D) Neither pathway has a refractory period
E) The His bundle

B) Slow pathway
Explanation: In AVNRT, the slow pathway has a shorter refractory period than the fast pathway, allowing it to conduct the next sinus impulse arriving at the AV node.

p.46
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What percentage of paroxysmal SVT (PSVT) cases does AVNRT account for?
A) 50%
B) 25%
C) 75%
D) 66%
E) 10%

D) 66%
Explanation: AVNRT accounts for approximately 2/3 (or 66%) of paroxysmal SVT cases, making it the most common type of PSVT, particularly in young adults.

p.54
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What heart rate is associated with a higher likelihood of near-syncope or syncope in AVNRT?
A) <60 bpm
B) 60-100 bpm
C) 100-140 bpm
D) 140-180 bpm
E) >180-200 bpm

E) >180-200 bpm
Explanation: Near-syncope or syncope are uncommon in AVNRT but are more likely to occur when the heart rate exceeds 180-200 bpm, indicating a correlation between high heart rates and these symptoms.

p.56
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What are 'Manifest' accessory pathways in AVRT?
A) Pathways that only allow retrograde conduction
B) Pathways that allow for antegrade conduction and show pre-excitation
C) Pathways that are invisible on EKG
D) Pathways that cause bradycardia
E) Pathways that are only present in infants

B) Pathways that allow for antegrade conduction and show pre-excitation
Explanation: 'Manifest' accessory pathways allow for antegrade conduction and result in a visible manifestation on the EKG, known as a delta wave, due to the premature activation of the ventricle.

p.58
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a key characteristic of Atrioventricular Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVRT)?
A) It always results in an arrhythmia.
B) It requires an accessory pathway (AP) to be present.
C) An arrhythmia may not always be present despite the presence of an AP.
D) It only occurs in the ventricles.
E) It is caused solely by atrial impulses.

C) An arrhythmia may not always be present despite the presence of an AP.
Explanation: The presence of an accessory pathway does not guarantee that an arrhythmia will occur; it depends on the conduction circumstances.

p.18
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Which of the following is a physiological cause of 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz I)?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Medications
C) Acute inferior myocardial infarction
D) Athletes
E) Heart failure

D) Athletes
Explanation: Athletes and children are considered physiological causes of Mobitz I, as their heart rates may adapt to lower levels without significant pathology.

p.27
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

Which of the following is NOT a component of an EKG waveform?
A) P wave
B) QRS complex
C) T wave
D) U wave
E) R wave

E) R wave
Explanation: While the R wave is part of the QRS complex, it is not a standalone component of the EKG waveform. The main components are the P wave, QRS complex, and T wave.

p.20
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What characterizes a 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz II)?
A) Constant PR interval with no dropped beats
B) Constant (often prolonged PR) then dropped beat
C) Irregularly irregular rhythm
D) Shortened PR interval
E) No QRS widening

B) Constant (often prolonged PR) then dropped beat
Explanation: Mobitz II is defined by a constant PR interval that is often prolonged, followed by a dropped beat, which is a key characteristic of this type of AV block.

p.34
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is abnormal automaticity in the context of arrhythmias?
A) A decrease in heart rate
B) A change in firing rate of pacemaker cells
C) A complete cessation of heart activity
D) An increase in blood pressure
E) A regular rhythm of the heart

B) A change in firing rate of pacemaker cells
Explanation: Abnormal automaticity refers to a change in the firing rate of pacemaker cells, which can lead to other cardiac cells taking over, resulting in ectopic rhythms.

p.36
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following is a potential cause of DAD?
A) Electrolyte abnormalities
B) Hypoxia
C) High levels of catecholamines
D) Acquired Long-QT syndrome
E) Antiarrhythmic drug toxicity

C) High levels of catecholamines
Explanation: DADs can be caused by conditions that augment intracellular calcium, including high levels of catecholamines, along with hypercalcemia and digitalis toxicity.

p.39
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What defines a Premature Atrial Contraction (PAC)?
A) A normal sinus beat
B) A depolarization event within the atria occurring before the next sinus beat
C) A ventricular contraction occurring too early
D) A complete heart block
E) A type of bradyarrhythmia

B) A depolarization event within the atria occurring before the next sinus beat
Explanation: PACs are characterized by an early depolarization event in the atria that occurs before the next expected sinus beat, distinguishing them from normal heart rhythms.

p.47
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is the typical conduction pattern in AVNRT?
A) Fast → Slow pathway
B) Slow → Fast pathway
C) Fast → His bundle
D) Slow → Atria
E) Atria → Ventricles

B) Slow → Fast pathway
Explanation: The typical conduction pattern in AVNRT is down the slow pathway and then up the fast pathway, creating a re-entrant circuit.

p.48
EKG Morphology of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

What is the term used for tachycardia with a short RP interval in AVNRT?
A) Long RP tachycardia
B) Atrial tachycardia
C) Short RP tachycardia
D) Fast-slow tachycardia
E) Slow-slow tachycardia

C) Short RP tachycardia
Explanation: The term 'short RP tachycardia' is used to describe the tachycardia that occurs in typical AVNRT, where the RP interval is ≤70ms.

p.50
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What does AVNRT stand for?
A) Atrioventricular Node Reentry Tachycardia
B) Atrial Ventricular Node Reentry Tachycardia
C) Atrioventricular Node Regular Tachycardia
D) Atrial Ventricular Node Regular Tachycardia
E) Atrioventricular Node Non-Reentry Tachycardia

A) Atrioventricular Node Reentry Tachycardia
Explanation: AVNRT stands for Atrioventricular Node Reentry Tachycardia, which is a common type of supraventricular tachycardia characterized by a reentrant circuit involving the atrioventricular node.

p.51
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is a defining feature of RP interval in typical AVNRT?
A) Long RP tachycardia
B) Short RP tachycardia
C) Variable RP interval
D) No RP interval
E) Prolonged RP interval

B) Short RP tachycardia
Explanation: Typical AVNRT is characterized by a short RP interval, which is a key feature that helps differentiate it from other types of tachycardias.

p.52
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is the primary characteristic of incessant supraventricular tachycardia?
A) Slow heart rate
B) Irregular heart rhythm
C) Rapid heart rate
D) No heart rhythm
E) Variable heart rate

C) Rapid heart rate
Explanation: Incessant supraventricular tachycardia is characterized by a rapid heart rate originating from above the ventricles, which is a defining feature of this condition.

p.54
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which symptom may be precipitated in patients with underlying cardiac disease during AVNRT?
A) Nausea
B) Dyspnea
C) Fever
D) Cough
E) Fatigue

B) Dyspnea
Explanation: In patients with underlying cardiac disease, symptoms such as dyspnea and chest pain or heart failure symptoms may be precipitated during episodes of AVNRT, indicating the arrhythmia's impact on those with pre-existing conditions.

p.55
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the primary intervention for acute, unstable Atrioventricular Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVNRT)?
A) Vagal maneuvers
B) Catheter ablation
C) ACLS
D) Adenosine
E) Digoxin

C) ACLS
Explanation: For acute, unstable AVNRT, the primary intervention is Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS), which is critical in managing unstable patients effectively.

p.60
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is a common symptom of orthodromic AVRT?
A) Bradycardia
B) Palpitations
C) Syncope
D) Chest pain
E) Shortness of breath

B) Palpitations
Explanation: Palpitations are a common symptom experienced during episodes of orthodromic AVRT, as the rapid heart rate can lead to a sensation of fluttering or pounding in the chest.

p.26
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What characterizes a ventricular escape rhythm?
A) It originates from the AV node
B) It is generated in the atria
C) It is located below the AV node
D) It occurs in the sinoatrial node
E) It is always a single beat

C) It is located below the AV node
Explanation: Ventricular escape rhythms are characterized by their origin below the AV node, indicating that the impulse is generated in the ventricles.

p.28
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a common treatment approach for supraventricular arrhythmias?
A) Surgical intervention only
B) Medication management
C) Lifestyle changes only
D) No treatment is necessary
E) Only electrical cardioversion

B) Medication management
Explanation: Medication management is a common treatment approach for supraventricular arrhythmias, which may include antiarrhythmic drugs to control heart rate and rhythm.

p.30
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which arrhythmia is associated with a bypass tract in Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome?
A) Atrial Fibrillation
B) AV Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVRT)
C) Junctional Tachycardia
D) Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia
E) Sinus Bradycardia

B) AV Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVRT)
Explanation: AVRT is associated with the presence of an accessory pathway, commonly seen in Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome, which allows for re-entrant circuits leading to tachycardia.

p.33
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a primary cause of abnormal impulse formation in arrhythmias?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Abnormal automaticity
C) Normal impulse frequency
D) Decreased blood pressure
E) Regular impulse formation

B) Abnormal automaticity
Explanation: Abnormal automaticity is one of the key mechanisms leading to abnormal impulse formation in arrhythmias, often resulting from changes in impulse frequency or location.

p.36
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following is NOT a cause of Delayed Afterdepolarizations (DAD)?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Ischemia
C) Digitalis toxicity
D) Heart failure
E) Gene mutations

B) Ischemia
Explanation: While ischemia is associated with EADs, DADs are primarily caused by conditions such as hypercalcemia, digitalis toxicity, heart failure, and gene mutations that increase intracellular calcium.

p.40
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

Which medication is NOT typically used for symptomatic multifocal PACs?
A) Beta-blockers (BB)
B) Flecainide
C) Propafenone
D) Digoxin
E) Specific antiarrhythmics

D) Digoxin
Explanation: For symptomatic multifocal PACs, beta-blockers and specific antiarrhythmics like flecainide or propafenone are used, but digoxin is not typically indicated for this condition.

p.48
EKG Morphology of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

In typical AVNRT, where is the P wave typically located?
A) Before the QRS complex
B) After the QRS complex
C) Within or close to the QRS complex
D) Not visible
E) Far from the QRS complex

C) Within or close to the QRS complex
Explanation: In typical AVNRT, conduction is up the fast pathway, resulting in the P wave being generated within or close to the QRS complex, leading to a short RP interval.

p.56
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is the basis for Atrioventricular Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVRT)?
A) The presence of a single AV node
B) The presence of an atrial septal defect
C) The presence of an atrioventricular accessory pathway
D) The presence of coronary artery disease
E) The presence of a myocardial scar

C) The presence of an atrioventricular accessory pathway
Explanation: The basis for AVRT is the presence of an atrioventricular accessory pathway, which allows for antegrade and retrograde conduction, facilitating the reentry circuit that characterizes this tachycardia.

p.60
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

In orthodromic AVRT, what is the typical conduction pathway?
A) Atrioventricular node to the atria and then to the ventricles
B) Atria to the ventricles and back to the atria
C) Ventricles to the atria and back to the ventricles
D) Atrioventricular node to the ventricles and back to the atria
E) Atria to the atrioventricular node and then to the ventricles

A) Atrioventricular node to the atria and then to the ventricles
Explanation: In orthodromic AVRT, the conduction typically travels down through the atrioventricular node to the ventricles and then retrogrades back to the atria, creating a circular conduction pathway.

p.63
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

At what heart rate is syncope more likely to occur in patients with AVRT?
A) <60 bpm
B) 60-100 bpm
C) 100-140 bpm
D) >180-200 bpm
E) 140-180 bpm

D) >180-200 bpm
Explanation: Near-syncope or syncope is uncommon in AVRT but becomes more likely when the heart rate exceeds 180-200 bpm, indicating the severity of the tachycardia.

p.65
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a key characteristic of orthodromic navigation?
A) It requires advanced technology
B) It is only applicable to land travel
C) It is based on spherical geometry
D) It is used exclusively in aviation
E) It ignores the Earth's curvature

C) It is based on spherical geometry
Explanation: Orthodromic navigation relies on principles of spherical geometry to calculate the shortest path between two points on the Earth's surface.

p.67
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is the heart rate range for Atrial Tachycardia?
A) 60-100 bpm
B) 100-300+ bpm
C) 40-60 bpm
D) 80-120 bpm
E) 300-400 bpm

B) 100-300+ bpm
Explanation: Atrial Tachycardia is characterized by an atrial heart rate ranging from 100 to 300+ bpm, indicating a rapid heart rhythm originating from the atria.

p.77
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

What is the primary focus of the Cleveland Clinic's publication on atrial fibrillation?
A) Management of diabetes
B) Cardiovascular surgery techniques
C) Disease management in cardiology
D) Neurological disorders
E) Pediatric cardiology

C) Disease management in cardiology
Explanation: The publication specifically addresses disease management within the field of cardiology, focusing on atrial fibrillation as a significant topic.

p.74
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

What is the typical atrial rate in Atrial Fibrillation?
A) < 100 bpm
B) 100 - 200 bpm
C) 200 - 300 bpm
D) > 300 bpm
E) 400 bpm

D) > 300 bpm
Explanation: In Atrial Fibrillation, the atrial rates are typically greater than 300 bpm, indicating a rapid and chaotic electrical activity in the atria.

p.26
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following focuses can generate escape rhythms?
A) Only atrial focus
B) Only junctional focus
C) Only ventricular focus
D) Atrial, junctional, and ventricular focuses
E) None of the above

D) Atrial, junctional, and ventricular focuses
Explanation: Escape rhythms can originate from various focuses, including atrial, junctional, and ventricular, each indicating a different location of impulse generation.

p.25
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the heart rate range for ventricular escape rhythms?
A) 30 - 80 bpm
B) 40 - 60 bpm
C) 20 - 50 bpm
D) 60 - 100 bpm
E) 80 - 120 bpm

C) 20 - 50 bpm
Explanation: Ventricular escape rhythms are characterized by a heart rate range of 20 to 50 beats per minute and typically present with a wide QRS complex greater than 120 ms.

p.20
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

How does Mobitz II respond to atropine?
A) Highly responsive
B) Moderately responsive
C) Poorly responsive
D) Not affected
E) Completely reversed

C) Poorly responsive
Explanation: Mobitz II is poorly responsive to atropine, which is important to note when considering treatment options for patients with this type of AV block.

p.29
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What distinguishes manifest action potentials from concealed action potentials?
A) Their speed
B) Their amplitude
C) Their visibility on an EKG
D) Their duration
E) Their location in the heart

C) Their visibility on an EKG
Explanation: The primary distinction between manifest and concealed action potentials lies in their visibility on an EKG, which affects how they are interpreted in clinical settings.

p.33
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following describes bradycardia?
A) Abnormal automaticity
B) Increased impulse frequency
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Normal heart rhythm
E) Triggered activity

C) Decreased heart rate
Explanation: Bradycardia is characterized by a decreased heart rate, which can be a result of abnormal impulse formation.

p.41
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What distinguishes Conducted PAC from Non-conducted PAC?
A) Conducted PAC has a longer duration
B) Conducted PAC results in a QRS complex
C) Conducted PAC is more dangerous
D) Conducted PAC occurs only in older adults
E) Conducted PAC is less common

B) Conducted PAC results in a QRS complex
Explanation: Conducted PAC is characterized by the successful conduction of the atrial impulse to the ventricles, resulting in a QRS complex on the EKG, unlike Non-conducted PAC.

p.47
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What happens when the impulse traveling down the slow pathway reaches the His bundle?
A) It stops conducting
B) It travels back down the slow pathway
C) The fast pathway has not recovered
D) The fast pathway has recovered and conducts the impulse
E) It causes ventricular depolarization

D) The fast pathway has recovered and conducts the impulse
Explanation: As the impulse traveling down the slow pathway reaches the His bundle, the fast pathway has recovered, allowing the impulse to conduct up the fast pathway.

p.48
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What characterizes atypical AVNRT?
A) Short RP interval
B) P wave before the QRS complex
C) Long RP interval
D) No P wave
E) P wave within the QRS complex

C) Long RP interval
Explanation: Atypical AVNRT is characterized by a long RP interval, as the P wave is often located after the QRS complex due to conduction up the slow pathway.

p.53
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What characterizes atypical AVNRT?
A) P waves are associated with the QRS complex
B) P waves are not associated with the QRS complex
C) P waves are absent
D) QRS complexes are wide
E) QRS complexes are narrow

B) P waves are not associated with the QRS complex
Explanation: Atypical AVNRT is characterized by P waves that are not associated with the QRS complex, indicating a different conduction pathway compared to typical AVNRT.

p.52
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following is a potential cause of incessant supraventricular tachycardia?
A) High blood pressure
B) Electrolyte imbalance
C) Structural heart disease
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

D) All of the above
Explanation: Incessant supraventricular tachycardia can be caused by various factors, including high blood pressure, electrolyte imbalances, and structural heart disease, making option D the correct choice.

p.57
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

How can Concealed Accessory Pathways be identified?
A) They are visible on a standard EKG
B) They require electrophysiological studies for identification
C) They are always symptomatic
D) They can be diagnosed through blood tests
E) They are identified by physical examination

B) They require electrophysiological studies for identification
Explanation: Concealed Accessory Pathways are often not visible on a standard EKG and typically require specialized electrophysiological studies for accurate identification.

p.61
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What does 'antidromic AVRT' refer to in terms of conduction?
A) Conduction through the AV node only
B) Conduction in a retrograde direction through an accessory pathway
C) Conduction in a normal forward direction through the AV node
D) Conduction through the bundle of His only
E) Conduction through the Purkinje fibers only

B) Conduction in a retrograde direction through an accessory pathway
Explanation: Antidromic AVRT (Atrioventricular Reentrant Tachycardia) involves conduction that occurs in a retrograde direction through an accessory pathway, which is a key characteristic of this arrhythmia.

p.64
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

Which of the following is NOT recommended for acute, stable Antidromic AVRT?
A) Adenosine
B) AV nodal blockers
C) Beta-blockers (BB)
D) Calcium channel blockers (CCB)
E) Procainamide

E) Procainamide
Explanation: In acute, stable Antidromic AVRT, adenosine and AV nodal blockers like beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers should be avoided unless the diagnosis is definitive, while Procainamide is the drug of choice for other types of tachycardia.

p.87
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

Which diagnostic tool is commonly used to identify ventricular arrhythmias?
A) MRI
B) EKG (Electrocardiogram)
C) X-ray
D) Ultrasound
E) Blood test

B) EKG (Electrocardiogram)
Explanation: An EKG (Electrocardiogram) is the primary diagnostic tool used to identify and analyze ventricular arrhythmias by recording the electrical activity of the heart.

p.27
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the significance of the T wave in an EKG?
A) It indicates atrial contraction
B) It represents ventricular repolarization
C) It shows heart rate
D) It measures blood flow
E) It indicates atrial depolarization

B) It represents ventricular repolarization
Explanation: The T wave in an EKG represents ventricular repolarization, which is the process of the ventricles recovering after contraction.

p.20
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What symptoms are commonly associated with 2nd Degree AV Block (Mobitz II)?
A) Palpitations and anxiety
B) Hemodynamic instability, severe bradycardia, and syncope
C) Chest pain and shortness of breath
D) Dizziness and headache
E) Fatigue and weakness

B) Hemodynamic instability, severe bradycardia, and syncope
Explanation: Mobitz II is more commonly associated with hemodynamic instability, severe bradycardia, and syncope, indicating its potential severity and impact on cardiac function.

p.29
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is an important aspect of managing supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?
A) Avoiding all physical activity
B) Using interventions specific to each SVT type
C) Increasing caffeine intake
D) Ignoring symptoms
E) Relying solely on home remedies

B) Using interventions specific to each SVT type
Explanation: Effective management of SVT requires tailored interventions that address the specific type of SVT, ensuring appropriate treatment and care for the patient.

p.31
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

How can SVTs be classified?
A) By heart rate only
B) By the patient's age
C) By the anatomic area responsible for abnormal impulse formation
D) By the presence of symptoms
E) By the duration of the arrhythmia

C) By the anatomic area responsible for abnormal impulse formation
Explanation: Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias can be classified based on the anatomic area responsible for the abnormal impulse formation, such as the sinoatrial node, atria, or junctional/AV node.

p.34
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What are delayed after depolarizations (DADs)?
A) Depolarization events before repolarization
B) Depolarization events during repolarization
C) Depolarization events after repolarization
D) Normal pacemaker activity
E) A type of arrhythmia

C) Depolarization events after repolarization
Explanation: Delayed after depolarizations (DADs) occur after the repolarization phase and can lead to triggered action potentials if they reach the threshold.

p.37
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What can cause a bundle branch block?
A) AV node malfunction
B) Slowed conduction beyond the AV node
C) Increased heart rate
D) Atrial fibrillation
E) Myocardial infarction

B) Slowed conduction beyond the AV node
Explanation: A bundle branch block occurs when there is slowed conduction beyond the AV node, specifically within the ventricles, leading to abnormal electrical conduction.

p.41
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What does PAC stand for in the context of heart disease?
A) Premature Atrial Contraction
B) Pulmonary Artery Catheter
C) Post-Acute Care
D) Peripheral Artery Condition
E) Primary Atrial Condition

A) Premature Atrial Contraction
Explanation: PAC refers to Premature Atrial Contraction, which is a type of arrhythmia characterized by early heartbeats originating in the atria.

p.44
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What treatment options are available for inappropriate sinus tachycardia?
A) Only lifestyle changes
B) Beta-blockers and ivabradine (off-label)
C) Only surgical intervention
D) Anticoagulants
E) Diuretics

B) Beta-blockers and ivabradine (off-label)
Explanation: Inappropriate sinus tachycardia can be trialed on beta-blockers, and in some cases, ivabradine may be used off-label as a treatment option.

p.48
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What percentage of Atrioventricular Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVNRT) cases are typical (slow-fast)?
A) 50-60%
B) 80-90%
C) 10-20%
D) 30-40%
E) 70-80%

B) 80-90%
Explanation: Typical (slow-fast) AVNRT accounts for 80-90% of cases, indicating its prevalence compared to atypical forms.

p.52
Management of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

What is a common treatment option for incessant supraventricular tachycardia?
A) Antibiotics
B) Anticoagulants
C) Catheter ablation
D) Insulin
E) Antidepressants

C) Catheter ablation
Explanation: Catheter ablation is a common treatment option for incessant supraventricular tachycardia, as it aims to destroy the abnormal electrical pathways causing the rapid heart rate.

p.55
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

Which medication is commonly used in the management of acute, stable AVNRT?
A) Warfarin
B) Digoxin
C) Amiodarone
D) Adenosine
E) Aspirin

D) Adenosine
Explanation: Adenosine is one of the key medications used in the acute management of stable AVNRT, helping to restore normal heart rhythm.

p.58
EKG Morphology of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

What is the morphology of the QRS complex in Antidromic AVRT?
A) Narrow QRS complex with inverted P waves
B) Wide complex pre-excited QRS complexes with inverted P waves
C) Normal QRS complex with upright P waves
D) Wide QRS complex with no P waves
E) Narrow QRS complex with upright P waves

B) Wide complex pre-excited QRS complexes with inverted P waves
Explanation: Antidromic AVRT results in wide complex pre-excited QRS complexes, with inverted P waves and a short RP interval.

p.62
EKG Morphology of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

What is the QRS duration in Orthodromic AVRT?
A) Narrow
B) Wide
C) Normal
D) Irregular
E) Prolonged

A) Narrow
Explanation: Orthodromic AVRT is characterized by a narrow QRS complex, which is a key feature that helps in its identification.

p.63
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What are common symptoms of Atrioventricular Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVRT)?
A) Fever and chills
B) Palpitations and dizziness
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Abdominal pain
E) Skin rash

B) Palpitations and dizziness
Explanation: Common symptoms of AVRT include palpitations, dizziness, lightheadedness, and dyspnea, which can significantly affect the patient's quality of life.

p.30
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a characteristic of Premature Atrial Contractions (PACs)?
A) They originate from the ventricles
B) They are caused by a delay in the AV node
C) They arise from ectopic foci in the atria
D) They are always symptomatic
E) They are a type of ventricular arrhythmia

C) They arise from ectopic foci in the atria
Explanation: PACs are characterized by their origin from ectopic foci in the atria, which leads to premature heartbeats that can disrupt normal rhythm.

p.32
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is the primary focus of the image from the source?
A) Basic cardiology concepts
B) Advanced surgical techniques
C) Neurology fundamentals
D) Respiratory system anatomy
E) Gastrointestinal disorders

A) Basic cardiology concepts
Explanation: The image source is related to basic cardiology, indicating that it covers fundamental concepts in the field of cardiology.

p.38
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What can cause a bundle branch block?
A) AV node malfunction
B) Slowed conduction within the ventricle
C) Increased heart rate
D) Atrial fibrillation
E) Myocardial infarction

B) Slowed conduction within the ventricle
Explanation: A bundle branch block occurs when there is slowed conduction beyond the AV node, specifically within the ventricle, leading to abnormal electrical conduction.

p.38
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What happens when a depolarization impulse encounters two regions of conducting tissue with differing conduction velocities?
A) It causes a heart attack
B) It leads to a conduction block
C) It can induce a re-entrant circuit
D) It results in ventricular tachycardia
E) It stabilizes the heart rhythm

C) It can induce a re-entrant circuit
Explanation: When a depolarization impulse encounters two regions of conducting tissue with differing conduction velocities and refractory periods, it can lead to the formation of a re-entrant circuit, which is a mechanism of arrhythmia.

p.39
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What determines the QRS morphology and duration in PACs?
A) The atrial conduction system
B) The ventricular conduction system
C) The sinoatrial node
D) The autonomic nervous system
E) The pacemaker cells

B) The ventricular conduction system
Explanation: The morphology and duration of the QRS complex in PACs are determined by the ventricular conduction system, which reflects how the electrical impulse is conducted through the ventricles.

p.41
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

In which edition of Braunwald’s Heart Disease is the information about PAC found?
A) 9th edition
B) 10th edition
C) 11th edition
D) 12th edition
E) 8th edition

C) 11th edition
Explanation: The information regarding Non-conducted and Conducted PAC is sourced from the 11th edition of Braunwald’s Heart Disease, published in 2018.

p.44
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What characterizes inappropriate sinus tachycardia?
A) HR decreases with physical activity
B) HR increases disproportionately to physical activity or emotional state
C) HR remains constant regardless of activity
D) HR is always below 60 bpm
E) HR is only elevated during sleep

B) HR increases disproportionately to physical activity or emotional state
Explanation: Inappropriate sinus tachycardia is defined by a heart rate that increases disproportionately to the level of physical activity or emotional state, without any identifiable physiological cause.

p.48
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is a distinguishing feature of atypical AVNRT compared to typical AVNRT?
A) It has a higher prevalence
B) It has a short RP interval
C) It involves retrograde conduction up the fast pathway
D) It has a long RP interval
E) It is always asymptomatic

D) It has a long RP interval
Explanation: Atypical AVNRT is characterized by a long RP interval due to the P wave occurring after the QRS complex, distinguishing it from typical AVNRT.

p.53
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is a defining feature of the tachycardia seen in atypical AVNRT?
A) Short RP tachycardia
B) Long RP tachycardia
C) Irregularly irregular rhythm
D) Ventricular tachycardia
E) Sinus tachycardia

B) Long RP tachycardia
Explanation: Atypical AVNRT is specifically noted for presenting as long RP tachycardia, which differentiates it from other forms of tachycardia.

p.56
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is the definition of Atrioventricular Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVRT)?
A) A type of bradycardia
B) Reciprocating tachycardia due to a reentry circuit between atria and ventricles
C) A condition with a heart rate below 60 bpm
D) A type of ventricular tachycardia
E) A condition caused by myocardial infarction

B) Reciprocating tachycardia due to a reentry circuit between atria and ventricles
Explanation: AVRT is defined as a reciprocating tachycardia that occurs due to a reentry circuit formed between the atria and ventricles, involving the native AV conduction system and an accessory pathway.

p.62
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What distinguishes Antidromic AVRT from Orthodromic AVRT?
A) Narrow QRS
B) Long RP tachycardia
C) Wide QRS
D) P-waves are prominent
E) Regular rhythm

C) Wide QRS
Explanation: Antidromic AVRT is characterized by a wide QRS complex and short RP tachycardia, which differentiates it from Orthodromic AVRT.

p.68
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the heart rate range for Focal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) 60 - 100 bpm
B) 100 - 250 bpm
C) 250 - 300 bpm
D) 300 - 350 bpm
E) 50 - 150 bpm

B) 100 - 250 bpm
Explanation: Focal Atrial Tachycardia is defined by a heart rate ranging from 100 to 250 beats per minute, indicating a rapid atrial rhythm.

p.66
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the first-line medical therapy for patients with WPW and atrial fibrillation?
A) Digoxin
B) Procainamide or ibutilide
C) Amiodarone
D) Adenosine
E) Beta-blockers

B) Procainamide or ibutilide
Explanation: The first-line medical therapy for patients with WPW and atrial fibrillation is procainamide or ibutilide, which are effective in managing the arrhythmia.

p.69
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is a rare symptom associated with Focal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) Severe headache
B) Near syncope or syncope
C) Nausea
D) Shortness of breath
E) Fever

B) Near syncope or syncope
Explanation: While mostly asymptomatic, Focal Atrial Tachycardia can rarely lead to near syncope or syncope, indicating a potential severity in some cases.

p.29
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a distinguishing factor between orthodromic and antidromic atrioventricular reentrant tachycardia (AVRT)?
A) Their treatment options
B) Their heart rate
C) The direction of conduction
D) Their symptoms
E) Their duration

C) The direction of conduction
Explanation: The key difference between orthodromic and antidromic AVRT lies in the direction of conduction, which affects their clinical presentation and management approaches.

p.34
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What can occur when there is severe bradycardia?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Ectopic atrial rhythm
C) Normal pacemaker function
D) Decreased automaticity
E) Ventricular fibrillation

B) Ectopic atrial rhythm
Explanation: Severe bradycardia can allow other cardiac cells with automaticity to take over, leading to ectopic atrial rhythms or junctional rhythms.

p.38
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What does the term 'paroxysmal' refer to in the context of arrhythmias?
A) Continuous and stable
B) Intermittent
C) Chronic and progressive
D) Rare and unusual
E) Always symptomatic

B) Intermittent
Explanation: In the context of arrhythmias, 'paroxysmal' refers to rhythms that are intermittent, often occurring in episodes rather than being constant.

p.39
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

How does the P wave morphology of PACs compare to the native sinoatrial beat?
A) It is identical
B) It is different
C) It is absent
D) It is inverted
E) It is larger

B) It is different
Explanation: The P wave morphology of PACs will differ from that of the native sinoatrial beat, indicating the ectopic origin of the contraction.

p.42
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the heart rate range for Sinus Tachycardia (ST)?
A) 60 - 100 bpm
B) 100 - 200 bpm
C) 40 - 60 bpm
D) 80 - 120 bpm
E) 200 - 300 bpm

B) 100 - 200 bpm
Explanation: Sinus Tachycardia is defined by a heart rate ranging from 100 to 200 beats per minute, depending on age, indicating an increased heart rate originating from the sinus node.

p.50
Management of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

Which maneuver is often used to terminate AVNRT?
A) Valsalva maneuver
B) Carotid massage
C) Deep breathing
D) Coughing
E) Jumping jacks

A) Valsalva maneuver
Explanation: The Valsalva maneuver is commonly used to terminate AVNRT by increasing intrathoracic pressure, which can interrupt the reentrant circuit.

p.52
EKG Morphology of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

Which diagnostic tool is primarily used to identify incessant supraventricular tachycardia?
A) MRI
B) EKG/ECG
C) X-ray
D) Ultrasound
E) Blood test

B) EKG/ECG
Explanation: An EKG/ECG is the primary diagnostic tool used to identify incessant supraventricular tachycardia by recording the electrical activity of the heart and revealing the rapid heart rate characteristic of this condition.

p.55
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a potential risk associated with catheter ablation for AVNRT?
A) Increased heart rate
B) AV nodal injury causing heart block
C) Hypotension
D) Stroke
E) Myocardial infarction

B) AV nodal injury causing heart block
Explanation: A low but present risk of AV nodal injury during catheter ablation can lead to heart block, which may necessitate the implantation of a pacemaker.

p.58
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is a defining feature of Antidromic AVRT when initiated by a PAC?
A) Conducts retrograde up the AV node
B) Blocked at the AV node
C) Conducts antegrade down the AP
D) Results in a narrow QRS complex
E) Initiated by a PVC

C) Conducts antegrade down the AP
Explanation: In Antidromic AVRT initiated by a PAC, the impulse is blocked at the AV node and conducts antegrade down the accessory pathway.

p.61
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is the primary mechanism behind antidromic AVRT?
A) Enhanced automaticity of the SA node
B) Reentry circuit involving the AV node and an accessory pathway
C) Increased vagal tone
D) Ectopic foci in the atria
E) Myocardial ischemia

B) Reentry circuit involving the AV node and an accessory pathway
Explanation: The primary mechanism of antidromic AVRT is a reentry circuit that involves both the AV node and an accessory pathway, allowing for rapid heart rates.

p.64
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the drug of choice for acute, stable Atrioventricular Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVRT)?
A) Adenosine
B) Flecainide
C) Procainamide
D) Beta-blockers
E) Calcium channel blockers

C) Procainamide
Explanation: Procainamide is identified as the drug of choice for managing acute, stable AVRT, particularly when other interventions are not suitable.

p.70
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a key characteristic of the P wave morphology in Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) All P waves are identical
B) At least 3 different P wave morphologies
C) No P waves are present
D) P waves are inverted
E) P waves are absent

B) At least 3 different P wave morphologies
Explanation: Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia is characterized by the presence of at least three different P wave morphologies due to multiple atrial foci or variable interatrial conduction.

p.75
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which of the following is a common symptom of Atrial Fibrillation?
A) Constant headache
B) Dizziness
C) Abdominal pain
D) Blurred vision
E) Joint pain

B) Dizziness
Explanation: Dizziness is one of the symptoms associated with Atrial Fibrillation, along with fatigue and dyspnea, indicating the variability in how patients may experience this arrhythmia.

p.79
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

Which of the following is a pathological etiology of Atrial Flutter?
A) Regular exercise
B) Post cardiac surgery
C) Healthy diet
D) Stress management
E) Adequate sleep

B) Post cardiac surgery
Explanation: Pathological etiologies of Atrial Flutter include conditions such as post cardiac surgery, prior atrial fibrillation ablation, and congenital heart disease, indicating the impact of structural heart changes on arrhythmias.

p.87
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which of the following is a common symptom of ventricular arrhythmias?
A) Dizziness or lightheadedness
B) Increased appetite
C) Frequent urination
D) Skin rash
E) Joint pain

A) Dizziness or lightheadedness
Explanation: Dizziness or lightheadedness is a common symptom associated with ventricular arrhythmias, as these abnormal rhythms can affect blood flow and cardiac output.

p.33
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following is an example of triggered activity in arrhythmias?
A) Bradycardia
B) Ectopic beats
C) EAD (Early Afterdepolarization)
D) Normal sinus rhythm
E) Atrial flutter

C) EAD (Early Afterdepolarization)
Explanation: EAD (Early Afterdepolarization) is a specific type of triggered activity that can lead to arrhythmias, highlighting the role of abnormal impulse formation.

p.34
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What are triggered action potentials?
A) Action potentials that occur without any stimulus
B) Action potentials that occur during normal heart rhythm
C) Action potentials that are induced by depolarization events
D) Action potentials that cause bradycardia
E) Action potentials that are always harmful

C) Action potentials that are induced by depolarization events
Explanation: Triggered action potentials are those that can be elicited by depolarization events during or immediately after repolarization, such as EADs and DADs.

p.38
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a common result of conduction delay in the heart?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Slowing of the heart rate
C) Irregular heartbeats
D) Complete heart block
E) Ventricular fibrillation

B) Slowing of the heart rate
Explanation: Conduction delay, such as from AV conduction block, results in a slowing of the heart rate, which is a key characteristic of this mechanism of arrhythmia.

p.38
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a key characteristic of re-entry arrhythmias?
A) They are always chronic
B) They require specific tissue conditions
C) They are caused by heart failure
D) They are always asymptomatic
E) They occur only in the atria

B) They require specific tissue conditions
Explanation: Re-entry arrhythmias occur when a depolarization impulse encounters two regions of conducting tissue with differing conduction velocity and refractory periods, requiring specific tissue conditions to induce a re-entrant circuit.

p.42
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is the typical symptom presentation in Sinus Tachycardia?
A) Always symptomatic
B) Most often asymptomatic
C) Severe chest pain
D) Syncope
E) Palpitations in all cases

B) Most often asymptomatic
Explanation: Sinus Tachycardia is typically asymptomatic unless associated with a specific condition, highlighting its often benign nature.

p.44
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What procedure may occasionally be successful in treating inappropriate sinus tachycardia?
A) Complete heart transplant
B) Partial ablation of the sinus node
C) Coronary artery bypass surgery
D) Pacemaker insertion
E) Valve replacement surgery

B) Partial ablation of the sinus node
Explanation: Occasionally, partial ablation of the sinus node can be a successful treatment for inappropriate sinus tachycardia, particularly in cases where other treatments are ineffective.

p.47
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What initiates Atrioventricular Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVNRT)?
A) Atrial Fibrillation
B) A Premature Atrial Contraction (PAC)
C) Ventricular Tachycardia
D) Sinus Bradycardia
E) Atrial Flutter

B) A Premature Atrial Contraction (PAC)
Explanation: AVNRT can occur when a specific event, such as a PAC, infiltrates the AV node, triggering the re-entrant circuit characteristic of this arrhythmia.

p.46
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is the definition of Atrioventricular Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVNRT)?
A) A single electrical pathway in the heart
B) Reciprocation between two separate electrical pathways within or proximal to the AV node
C) A type of ventricular tachycardia
D) A condition caused by a heart valve defect
E) A type of atrial flutter

B) Reciprocation between two separate electrical pathways within or proximal to the AV node
Explanation: AVNRT is defined as the reciprocation between two separate electrical pathways within or near the AV node, allowing for the formation of a reentry circuit, which is crucial for understanding this arrhythmia.

p.49
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What does an RP interval greater than half the RR interval suggest?
A) A normal conduction pathway
B) A type of ventricular arrhythmia
C) A junctional rhythm
D) A type of atrial arrhythmia
E) A complete heart block

D) A type of atrial arrhythmia
Explanation: An RP interval greater than half the RR interval suggests a type of atrial arrhythmia, indicating a longer delay between atrial and ventricular contractions.

p.51
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is a characteristic feature of typical AVNRT?
A) P waves are absent
B) P waves are closely associated with the QRS complex
C) P waves appear before the QRS complex
D) P waves are inverted
E) P waves are widely spaced from the QRS complex

B) P waves are closely associated with the QRS complex
Explanation: In typical AVNRT (Atrioventricular Nodal Reentrant Tachycardia), P waves are closely associated with the QRS complex, indicating a rapid reentrant circuit involving the AV node.

p.54
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is the common etiology of Atrioventricular Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVNRT)?
A) It occurs in patients with severe heart disease
B) It occurs in otherwise 'normal' hearts
C) It is caused by congenital heart defects
D) It is primarily seen in elderly patients
E) It is associated with high blood pressure

B) It occurs in otherwise 'normal' hearts
Explanation: AVNRT commonly occurs in patients who have an underlying physiologic substrate but are otherwise considered to have normal hearts, indicating that it can arise in a healthy population.

p.56
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is the typical heart rate range for AVRT?
A) 60 - 100 bpm
B) 100 - 150 bpm
C) 150 - 250 bpm
D) 250 - 300 bpm
E) 300 - 400 bpm

C) 150 - 250 bpm
Explanation: The heart rate in AVRT generally ranges from 150 to 250 beats per minute, indicating a rapid heart rhythm characteristic of this arrhythmia.

p.57
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a characteristic of Manifest Accessory Pathways (AP)?
A) They are always asymptomatic
B) They can conduct impulses during atrial fibrillation
C) They are only present in children
D) They are not detectable on an EKG
E) They can lead to pre-excitation syndromes

E) They can lead to pre-excitation syndromes
Explanation: Manifest Accessory Pathways are characterized by their ability to conduct impulses, which can lead to pre-excitation syndromes, making them clinically significant and detectable.

p.41
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a key characteristic of Non-conducted PAC?
A) It results in a regular heartbeat
B) It does not lead to a QRS complex
C) It is always symptomatic
D) It occurs only in athletes
E) It is a common type of heart failure

B) It does not lead to a QRS complex
Explanation: Non-conducted PAC is characterized by the absence of a QRS complex following the premature atrial contraction, indicating that the impulse did not reach the ventricles.

p.42
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the general intervention for Sinus Tachycardia?
A) Immediate surgery
B) General treatment required
C) Treat underlying process
D) Always use antiarrhythmic drugs
E) No intervention needed at all times

C) Treat underlying process
Explanation: Sinus Tachycardia generally does not require treatment unless it is excessively high or associated with an underlying pathological condition, in which case the underlying cause should be addressed.

p.54
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of AVNRT?
A) Palpitations
B) Dizziness
C) Neck pounding
D) Severe chest pain
E) Lightheadedness

D) Severe chest pain
Explanation: While symptoms of AVNRT can include palpitations, dizziness, lightheadedness, and neck pounding, severe chest pain is not a common symptom unless there is underlying cardiac disease.

p.57
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following best describes Concealed Accessory Pathways (AP)?
A) They are always symptomatic
B) They can conduct impulses only during certain conditions
C) They are easily detected on an EKG
D) They are associated with a higher risk of sudden cardiac death
E) They do not conduct impulses during normal sinus rhythm

B) They can conduct impulses only during certain conditions
Explanation: Concealed Accessory Pathways are typically asymptomatic and may only conduct impulses under specific conditions, making them less detectable than manifest pathways.

p.62
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What type of tachycardia is associated with Antidromic AVRT?
A) Long RP tachycardia
B) Short RP tachycardia
C) Atrial flutter
D) Ventricular tachycardia
E) Sinus tachycardia

B) Short RP tachycardia
Explanation: Antidromic AVRT is associated with short RP tachycardia, which is a distinguishing feature compared to Orthodromic AVRT.

p.64
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the curative treatment for chronic, recurrent Atrioventricular Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVRT)?
A) Vagal maneuvers
B) Catheter ablation
C) Adenosine
D) Procainamide
E) Flecainide

B) Catheter ablation
Explanation: Catheter ablation of the accessory pathway is a curative treatment for chronic, recurrent AVRT, with an effectiveness rate of 85-95%.

p.66
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is defined as Wolf-Parkinson-White Syndrome (WPW)?
A) Presence of a heart murmur
B) Preexcitation with a history of tachyarrhythmia
C) Normal ECG findings
D) Atrial fibrillation without preexcitation
E) Ventricular fibrillation

B) Preexcitation with a history of tachyarrhythmia
Explanation: WPW is specifically defined as preexcitation accompanied by a history of tachyarrhythmia, indicating a significant clinical condition.

p.70
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which of the following is a pathological etiology for Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) Regular exercise
B) Heavy caffeine use
C) Balanced diet
D) Adequate hydration
E) Low stress levels

B) Heavy caffeine use
Explanation: Pathological causes of Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia include heavy caffeine or alcohol use, as well as lung diseases, particularly exacerbations of COPD.

p.73
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What does MAT stand for in cardiac rhythms?
A) Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia
B) Moderate Atrial Tachycardia
C) Myogenic Atrial Tachycardia
D) Multi-Atrial Transitions
E) Mild Atrial Tachycardia

A) Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia
Explanation: MAT stands for Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia, which is characterized by multiple ectopic foci in the atria causing rapid heart rates.

p.72
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is a key characteristic of focal atrial tachycardia?
A) It originates from multiple sites in the atria
B) It originates from a single ectopic focus
C) It is always associated with bradycardia
D) It has a regular ventricular response
E) It is caused by atrial fibrillation

B) It originates from a single ectopic focus
Explanation: Focal atrial tachycardia is characterized by its origin from a single ectopic focus in the atria, distinguishing it from other types of atrial tachycardias.

p.74
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

What is the ventricular rate in Atrial Fibrillation typically dictated by?
A) Atrial firing rate
B) AV node conduction
C) Pulmonary vein activity
D) P wave presence
E) Blood pressure levels

B) AV node conduction
Explanation: The ventricular rates in Atrial Fibrillation are dictated by conduction through the AV node, which, due to its refractoriness, generally results in rates of 100 - 200 bpm.

p.80
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a common treatment approach for macro-reentrant atrial tachycardia?
A) Immediate defibrillation
B) Catheter ablation
C) Increased physical activity
D) Administration of beta-blockers only
E) Surgical intervention is always required

B) Catheter ablation
Explanation: Catheter ablation is a common treatment approach for macro-reentrant atrial tachycardia, as it targets the reentrant circuit to restore normal rhythm.

p.83
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is a common clinical implication of atypical atrial flutter?
A) Increased risk of stroke
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Improved cardiac output
D) Normal blood pressure
E) Reduced oxygen demand

A) Increased risk of stroke
Explanation: Atypical atrial flutter can lead to an increased risk of thromboembolic events, including stroke, due to the potential for blood clots forming in the atria.

p.81
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a potential effect of chronic ischemia on the heart?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Development of arrhythmias
C) Decreased blood pressure
D) Enhanced cardiac output
E) Improved myocardial perfusion

B) Development of arrhythmias
Explanation: Chronic ischemia can lead to structural and electrical changes in the heart, increasing the risk of developing arrhythmias due to impaired blood flow and oxygen delivery.

p.40
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the role of LV function in the treatment of symptomatic PACs?
A) It is irrelevant
B) It determines the need for anticoagulation
C) It must be normal for certain antiarrhythmics to be used
D) It dictates the use of beta-blockers
E) It requires immediate intervention

C) It must be normal for certain antiarrhythmics to be used
Explanation: When treating symptomatic PACs with antiarrhythmics like flecainide or propafenone, it is essential that left ventricular (LV) function is normal and that there is no coronary artery disease (CAD).

p.47
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What effect can the impulse traveling up the fast pathway have on the sinus node?
A) It enhances the sinus node activity
B) It has no effect on the sinus node
C) It suppresses the sinus node
D) It causes the sinus node to fire faster
E) It leads to atrial fibrillation

C) It suppresses the sinus node
Explanation: The impulse traveling up the fast pathway can cause retrograde conduction to the atria, which may suppress the sinus node, affecting normal heart rhythm.

p.46
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is the basis for AVNRT?
A) A single fast pathway in the heart
B) The presence of a single electrical circuit
C) The dual pathway physiology of the AV node having both slow and fast pathways
D) A malfunctioning pacemaker
E) A blockage in the coronary arteries

C) The dual pathway physiology of the AV node having both slow and fast pathways
Explanation: The basis for AVNRT lies in the dual pathway physiology of the AV node, which includes both slow and fast pathways, allowing for the reentry circuit to form.

p.50
EKG Morphology of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of typical AVNRT?
A) Wide QRS complexes
B) Short RP interval
C) Long PR interval
D) Irregularly irregular rhythm
E) Presence of delta waves

B) Short RP interval
Explanation: Typical AVNRT is characterized by a short RP interval, which is a key feature that helps differentiate it from other types of tachycardias.

p.55
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for acute, stable AVNRT?
A) Vagal maneuvers
B) Adenosine
C) Catheter ablation
D) Beta-blockers (BB)
E) Calcium channel blockers (CCB)

C) Catheter ablation
Explanation: Catheter ablation is typically reserved for chronic, recurrent, poorly tolerated AVNRT, not for acute, stable cases, which can be managed with vagal maneuvers and medications.

p.58
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What initiates Orthodromic AVRT when triggered by a PAC?
A) Conducts antegrade down the AP
B) Blocked at the AV node
C) Conducts retrograde up the AP
D) Initiated by a PVC
E) Conducts directly to the ventricles

C) Conducts retrograde up the AP
Explanation: In Orthodromic AVRT initiated by a PAC, the impulse is initially blocked by the AP and then conducts down the AV node, retrograde up the AP to the atria.

p.62
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is a characteristic of Orthodromic AVRT?
A) Wide QRS
B) Long RP tachycardia
C) Short RP tachycardia
D) P-waves are easily visible
E) Irregular rhythm

B) Long RP tachycardia
Explanation: Orthodromic AVRT is characterized by a narrow QRS complex and long RP tachycardia, distinguishing it from other types of tachycardia.

p.60
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

Which of the following is a potential treatment for orthodromic AVRT?
A) Increased fluid intake
B) Vagal maneuvers
C) Antibiotics
D) Anticoagulants
E) Diuretics

B) Vagal maneuvers
Explanation: Vagal maneuvers, such as the Valsalva maneuver, can be effective in terminating episodes of orthodromic AVRT by increasing vagal tone and slowing conduction through the AV node.

p.64
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the recommended intervention for acute, unstable Atrioventricular Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVRT)?
A) Vagal maneuvers
B) ACLS
C) Catheter ablation
D) Procainamide
E) Flecainide

B) ACLS
Explanation: For acute, unstable AVRT, the recommended intervention is Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS), which is crucial for managing unstable tachycardia effectively.

p.67
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is a characteristic feature of Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia (MAT)?
A) Single atrial focus
B) Multiple atrial foci
C) Constant ventricular rate
D) Slow heart rate
E) Origin from the AV node

B) Multiple atrial foci
Explanation: Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia (MAT) is characterized by multiple atrial foci, leading to varying P wave morphologies and an irregular rhythm.

p.68
Etiology of Arrhythmias

Which of the following is NOT a pathological cause of Focal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) Digoxin toxicity
B) Lung disease
C) Electrolyte abnormalities
D) Regular exercise
E) Congenital heart disease

D) Regular exercise
Explanation: Regular exercise is not listed as a pathological cause of Focal Atrial Tachycardia; rather, it can be associated with extrinsic factors like digoxin toxicity, lung disease, and electrolyte abnormalities.

p.71
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

Which medications can be used to slow ventricular rate in tachycardia?
A) Diuretics
B) Anticoagulants
C) Beta-blockers (BB) or Calcium channel blockers (CCB)
D) ACE inhibitors
E) Statins

C) Beta-blockers (BB) or Calcium channel blockers (CCB)
Explanation: Beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers are effective in slowing the ventricular rate in cases of tachycardia, although their use may be limited in patients with exacerbations of pulmonary disease.

p.77
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

Which medical institution is the source of the information on atrial fibrillation?
A) Mayo Clinic
B) Johns Hopkins University
C) Cleveland Clinic
D) Massachusetts General Hospital
E) Stanford University

C) Cleveland Clinic
Explanation: The source of the information is the Cleveland Clinic, a well-known medical institution that provides resources on various medical conditions, including atrial fibrillation.

p.79
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

What distinguishes atypical Atrial Flutter from typical Atrial Flutter?
A) It has a slower heart rate
B) It does not involve the CTI
C) It is always symptomatic
D) It occurs only in older patients
E) It is a type of ventricular arrhythmia

B) It does not involve the CTI
Explanation: Atypical Atrial Flutter is characterized by reentrant tachycardia that does not involve the cavotricuspid isthmus (CTI), allowing circuits to develop nearly anywhere in the atria.

p.44
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is the likely cause of inappropriate sinus tachycardia?
A) Decreased automaticity of the sinus node
B) Increased automaticity of the sinus node or nearby tissue
C) Increased parasympathetic tone
D) Decreased sympathetic tone
E) Blockage of the sinus node

B) Increased automaticity of the sinus node or nearby tissue
Explanation: Inappropriate sinus tachycardia is likely due to increased automaticity of the sinus node or nearby tissue, along with excess sympathetic tone or reduced parasympathetic tone.

p.46
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What happens to the slow pathway impulse during AVNRT?
A) It travels faster than the fast pathway
B) It is extinguished as it meets the refractory wake
C) It continues to propagate without interruption
D) It causes ventricular fibrillation
E) It is unaffected by the fast pathway impulse

B) It is extinguished as it meets the refractory wake
Explanation: During AVNRT, the slow pathway impulse is extinguished when it encounters the refractory wake created by the fast pathway impulse reaching the His bundle first, which is essential for the reentry mechanism.

p.49
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What does an RP interval less than half the RR interval indicate?
A) A normal sinus rhythm
B) A type of atrial arrhythmia
C) A junctional rhythm
D) A ventricular arrhythmia
E) A complete heart block

B) A type of atrial arrhythmia
Explanation: An RP interval that is less than half the RR interval typically indicates a type of atrial arrhythmia, suggesting a close relationship between the atrial and ventricular activities.

p.50
EKG Morphology of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

In typical AVNRT, which wave is often not visible on the ECG?
A) P wave
B) QRS complex
C) T wave
D) U wave
E) R wave

A) P wave
Explanation: In typical AVNRT, the P wave is often not visible on the ECG due to its fusion with the QRS complex, making it difficult to identify.

p.58
EKG Morphology of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

What is the result of Orthodromic AVRT in terms of QRS complex morphology?
A) Wide QRS complex with upright P waves
B) Narrow QRS complex with inverted P waves
C) Normal QRS complex with no P waves
D) Wide QRS complex with no P waves
E) Narrow QRS complex with upright P waves

B) Narrow QRS complex with inverted P waves
Explanation: Orthodromic AVRT results in a narrow QRS complex, with inverted P waves and a long RP interval.

p.61
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

Which of the following is a common feature of antidromic AVRT?
A) It always presents with bradycardia
B) It typically involves a narrow QRS complex
C) It often presents with a wide QRS complex
D) It is associated with atrial fibrillation
E) It is characterized by a prolonged PR interval

C) It often presents with a wide QRS complex
Explanation: Antidromic AVRT typically presents with a wide QRS complex due to the conduction through the accessory pathway, which can alter the normal ventricular depolarization pattern.

p.60
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is the heart rate typically observed during an episode of orthodromic AVRT?
A) 60-100 bpm
B) 100-150 bpm
C) 150-250 bpm
D) 250-300 bpm
E) Below 60 bpm

C) 150-250 bpm
Explanation: During an episode of orthodromic AVRT, the heart rate is typically elevated, often ranging from 150 to 250 beats per minute due to the reentrant nature of the tachycardia.

p.63
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is the underlying physiologic substrate for Atrioventricular Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVRT)?
A) Atrial Fibrillation
B) Atrial Flutter
C) Accessory Pathway (AP)
D) Ventricular Tachycardia
E) Sinus Bradycardia

C) Accessory Pathway (AP)
Explanation: AVRT generally occurs in patients who have an underlying physiologic substrate, specifically an accessory pathway (AP), which is crucial for the mechanism of this arrhythmia.

p.63
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

How can the onset and offset of symptoms in AVRT occur?
A) Gradually over several hours
B) Abruptly with a single PAC/PVC
C) Only during exercise
D) Only at night
E) After eating

B) Abruptly with a single PAC/PVC
Explanation: The onset and offset of symptoms in AVRT can be abrupt and may begin and end with a single premature atrial contraction (PAC) or premature ventricular contraction (PVC), highlighting the arrhythmia's sudden nature.

p.66
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What does the presence of a Delta wave on an ECG suggest in WPW?
A) Normal heart function
B) Preexcitation
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Atrial flutter
E) Ventricular tachycardia

B) Preexcitation
Explanation: The presence of a Delta wave on an ECG is indicative of preexcitation, which is a key characteristic of Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW).

p.71
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is a common symptom associated with tachycardia?
A) Dizziness
B) Sensation of palpitations
C) Nausea
D) Chest pain
E) Fatigue

B) Sensation of palpitations
Explanation: The sensation of palpitations is a common symptom experienced by individuals with tachycardia, particularly when heart rates are elevated.

p.73
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What does NSR stand for in cardiac terminology?
A) Normal Sinus Rhythm
B) Non-Sinus Rhythm
C) Narrow Sinus Response
D) Normal Systolic Rate
E) Non-Sustained Rhythm

A) Normal Sinus Rhythm
Explanation: NSR stands for Normal Sinus Rhythm, which indicates a normal heartbeat originating from the sinus node, reflecting a healthy heart rhythm.

p.75
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

How do symptoms of Atrial Fibrillation vary among patients?
A) All patients experience severe symptoms
B) Some patients are asymptomatic despite high ventricular rates
C) Symptoms are always mild
D) Symptoms are uniform across all patients
E) Patients always report dizziness

B) Some patients are asymptomatic despite high ventricular rates
Explanation: The symptoms of Atrial Fibrillation can be highly variable; some patients may experience profound symptoms, while others may be unaware of the arrhythmia even with a high ventricular rate response.

p.110
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the heart rate range for Ventricular Escape Rhythm?
A) 60 - 100 bpm
B) 20 - 50 bpm
C) 50 - 70 bpm
D) 70 - 90 bpm
E) 100 - 120 bpm

B) 20 - 50 bpm
Explanation: Ventricular Escape Rhythm is characterized by a heart rate between 20 and 50 beats per minute, indicating a significant slowing of the heart rate.

p.51
EKG Morphology of Supraventricular Arrhythmias

What does the Pseudo R’ appearance indicate in typical AVNRT?
A) A normal sinus rhythm
B) A variation in heart rate
C) A characteristic of the QRS complex
D) A prolonged PR interval
E) A complete heart block

C) A characteristic of the QRS complex
Explanation: The Pseudo R’ appearance in typical AVNRT refers to a specific morphology of the QRS complex that can occur due to the close association of P waves and QRS complexes during the tachycardia.

p.54
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

How can events of AVNRT begin and end?
A) With a heart attack
B) With a single PAC
C) With medication
D) With exercise
E) With a change in diet

B) With a single PAC
Explanation: Events of AVNRT can begin and end abruptly with a single premature atrial contraction (PAC), highlighting the arrhythmia's sudden onset and offset characteristics.

p.56
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What characterizes 'Concealed' accessory pathways in AVRT?
A) They allow for antegrade conduction
B) They are visible on EKG
C) They allow for retrograde conduction without evidence on EKG
D) They are responsible for heart block
E) They are only found in the left atrium

C) They allow for retrograde conduction without evidence on EKG
Explanation: 'Concealed' accessory pathways permit retrograde conduction but generally do not show any evidence of their presence on an EKG, making them difficult to diagnose.

p.57
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is a common clinical implication of Manifest Accessory Pathways?
A) They are benign and require no treatment
B) They can cause atrial flutter or fibrillation
C) They are only found in athletes
D) They are always associated with heart failure
E) They are easily treated with medication

B) They can cause atrial flutter or fibrillation
Explanation: Manifest Accessory Pathways can lead to arrhythmias such as atrial flutter or fibrillation, which may require clinical intervention.

p.60
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What does AVRT stand for in the context of arrhythmias?
A) Atrioventricular Reentrant Tachycardia
B) Atrial Ventricular Reentry Tachycardia
C) Atrioventricular Rhythm Tachycardia
D) Atrial Ventricular Reentrant Trigger
E) Atrioventricular Reentry Trigger

A) Atrioventricular Reentrant Tachycardia
Explanation: AVRT stands for Atrioventricular Reentrant Tachycardia, which is a type of arrhythmia characterized by a reentrant circuit involving the atrioventricular node.

p.65
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following best describes an orthodromic route?
A) A route that follows the curvature of the Earth
B) A straight line on a flat map
C) A zigzag path to avoid obstacles
D) A circular route around an island
E) A route that is longer than necessary

A) A route that follows the curvature of the Earth
Explanation: An orthodromic route is characterized by following the curvature of the Earth, representing the shortest distance between two points on a spherical surface.

p.67
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is the definition of Atrial Tachycardia?
A) A slow heart rhythm from the AV node
B) A tachycardic rhythm from an atrial focus or foci
C) A normal heart rhythm with a rate of 60-100 bpm
D) A rhythm originating from the ventricles
E) A rhythm with a constant ventricular rate

B) A tachycardic rhythm from an atrial focus or foci
Explanation: Atrial Tachycardia is defined as a tachycardic rhythm resulting from an atrial focus or foci, with an atrial heart rate of 100-300+ bpm and a variable ventricular rate based on AV conduction.

p.68
Etiology of Arrhythmias

Which of the following is a physiological etiology of Focal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) Congenital heart disease
B) Heavy caffeine use
C) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
D) Heart failure
E) None of the above

B) Heavy caffeine use
Explanation: Heavy caffeine use is listed as an extrinsic pathological cause, while physiological causes can occur in patients without heart disease, indicating a benign process.

p.69
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

Which treatment can be trialed for acute, stable Focal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) Surgery
B) Adenosine and vagal maneuvers
C) Anticoagulants
D) Diuretics
E) Antibiotics

B) Adenosine and vagal maneuvers
Explanation: For acute, stable cases, adenosine and vagal maneuvers can be attempted, although they are often ineffective in converting the arrhythmia.

p.72
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What distinguishes multifocal atrial tachycardia from other types of atrial tachycardia?
A) It has a single ectopic focus
B) It is characterized by varying P-wave morphology
C) It is always associated with heart failure
D) It has a constant heart rate
E) It originates from the ventricles

B) It is characterized by varying P-wave morphology
Explanation: Multifocal atrial tachycardia is distinguished by the presence of varying P-wave morphology due to its origin from multiple ectopic foci in the atria.

p.83
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What does the presence of a sawtooth pattern in an ECG suggest?
A) Normal sinus rhythm
B) Atrial flutter
C) Ventricular tachycardia
D) Myocardial infarction
E) Heart block

B) Atrial flutter
Explanation: The presence of a sawtooth pattern in an ECG is indicative of atrial flutter, particularly atypical forms, which helps in differentiating it from other arrhythmias.

p.81
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following is a characteristic of fibrosis?
A) Increased elasticity of tissues
B) Replacement of normal tissue with scar tissue
C) Enhanced blood supply
D) Decreased collagen production
E) Improved tissue regeneration

B) Replacement of normal tissue with scar tissue
Explanation: Fibrosis is characterized by the replacement of normal tissue with fibrous scar tissue, which can impair the function of the affected organ or tissue.

p.89
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)?
A) A slow and regular heart rhythm
B) Chaotic electrical activity in the ventricles
C) A type of atrial flutter
D) A normal heart rhythm
E) A condition with a heart rate of 100 bpm

B) Chaotic electrical activity in the ventricles
Explanation: Ventricular Fibrillation (VF) is characterized by chaotic electrical activity in the ventricles, leading to ineffective heart contractions and requiring immediate medical intervention.

p.61
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

Which of the following is a potential treatment for antidromic AVRT?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) Radiofrequency ablation
D) Digoxin
E) Anticoagulants

C) Radiofrequency ablation
Explanation: Radiofrequency ablation is a potential treatment for antidromic AVRT, as it can effectively eliminate the accessory pathway responsible for the arrhythmia.

p.63
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Which congenital heart disease is associated with multiple accessory pathways in AVRT?
A) Tetralogy of Fallot
B) Atrial Septal Defect
C) Ebstein’s Anomaly
D) Ventricular Septal Defect
E) Coarctation of the Aorta

C) Ebstein’s Anomaly
Explanation: Ebstein’s Anomaly is a congenital heart disease that can lead to the presence of multiple accessory pathways, making it a significant etiology for AVRT.

p.71
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What should be identified as part of the intervention for tachycardia?
A) Patient's age
B) Contributing medical conditions or drugs
C) Family history
D) Previous surgeries
E) Lifestyle choices

B) Contributing medical conditions or drugs
Explanation: Identifying contributing medical conditions or medications is crucial in managing tachycardia, as these factors can exacerbate the condition.

p.70
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What can make it difficult to differentiate Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia from another condition?
A) High blood pressure
B) Coarse atrial fibrillation
C) Ventricular tachycardia
D) Sinus bradycardia
E) Atrial flutter

B) Coarse atrial fibrillation
Explanation: At high rates, Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia can be difficult to differentiate from coarse atrial fibrillation, as both can present with rapid atrial activity.

p.73
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is FAT in the context of arrhythmias?
A) Fast Atrial Tachycardia
B) Focal Atrial Tachycardia
C) Flutter Atrial Tachycardia
D) Frequent Atrial Transitions
E) Fibrillation Atrial Type

B) Focal Atrial Tachycardia
Explanation: FAT refers to Focal Atrial Tachycardia, a type of arrhythmia characterized by rapid heartbeats originating from a specific area in the atria.

p.79
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

What is the typical AV block ratio in Atrial Flutter?
A) 1:1
B) 3:1
C) 2:1
D) 4:1
E) 5:1

C) 2:1
Explanation: Atrial Flutter generally presents with a 2:1 AV block, although the ratio of block can be variable, indicating the complexity of the condition.

p.80
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

Which of the following is a common feature of atypical atrial flutter?
A) It has a fixed atrial rate of 60 bpm
B) It typically presents with a regular rhythm
C) It is always associated with heart failure
D) It can have variable atrial rates
E) It is exclusively found in young athletes

D) It can have variable atrial rates
Explanation: Atypical atrial flutter can present with variable atrial rates, making it distinct from typical atrial flutter, which usually has a fixed rate.

p.81
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a common consequence of ischemia in tissues?
A) Increased blood flow
B) Tissue necrosis
C) Enhanced oxygen delivery
D) Decreased metabolic demand
E) Improved nutrient absorption

B) Tissue necrosis
Explanation: Ischemia, which refers to insufficient blood flow to tissues, can lead to tissue necrosis due to a lack of oxygen and nutrients, ultimately resulting in cell death.

p.96
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What treatment options are available for symptomatic unifocal PVCs?
A) Only lifestyle changes
B) PVC ablation, beta-blockers, and specific antiarrhythmics
C) Only antiarrhythmics
D) Surgical intervention
E) No treatment options

B) PVC ablation, beta-blockers, and specific antiarrhythmics
Explanation: For symptomatic unifocal PVCs, treatment options include PVC ablation, beta-blockers, and specific antiarrhythmics, depending on the presence or absence of structural heart disease.

p.98
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the QRS duration characteristic of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
A) < 80 ms
B) 80 - 100 ms
C) 100 - 120 ms
D) > 120 ms
E) > 150 ms

D) > 120 ms
Explanation: In Ventricular Tachycardia (VT), the QRS duration is greater than 120 milliseconds, which is a distinguishing feature of this arrhythmia.

p.100
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

Which medication is commonly used for medical therapy in Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
A) Metoprolol
B) Amiodarone IV
C) Digoxin
D) Warfarin
E) Atorvastatin

B) Amiodarone IV
Explanation: Amiodarone IV is a key medication used in the treatment of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT), especially in cases related to ischemia.

p.103
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is Brugada's sign characterized by?
A) Interval from R wave to bottom of S wave is 0.1s
B) Presence of a fusion beat
C) AV dissociation
D) Noticing near the low point of S wave
E) A prolonged QT interval

A) Interval from R wave to bottom of S wave is 0.1s
Explanation: Brugada's sign is specifically defined by the interval from the R wave to the bottom of the S wave being 0.1 seconds, which is a key diagnostic feature.

p.107
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What happens to a patient experiencing Ventricular Fibrillation?
A) The patient has normal cardiac output
B) The patient is effectively deceased unless resuscitated
C) The patient experiences increased blood pressure
D) The patient has a stable heart rhythm
E) The patient shows signs of recovery without intervention

B) The patient is effectively deceased unless resuscitated
Explanation: In Ventricular Fibrillation, there is no cardiac output, and the patient is considered effectively deceased unless immediate resuscitation is performed.

p.108
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What are the primary symptoms of Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)?
A) Consciousness and strong pulse
B) Unconsciousness and pulselessness
C) Dizziness and headache
D) Chest pain and shortness of breath
E) Nausea and vomiting

B) Unconsciousness and pulselessness
Explanation: The primary symptoms of Ventricular Fibrillation include being unconscious and pulseless, which are critical indicators of this life-threatening condition.

p.61
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is a common symptom experienced during an episode of antidromic AVRT?
A) Syncope
B) Chest pain
C) Palpitations
D) Dyspnea
E) Fatigue

C) Palpitations
Explanation: Patients experiencing antidromic AVRT commonly report palpitations, which are sensations of a rapid or irregular heartbeat during episodes of this arrhythmia.

p.64
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What should be considered when diagnosing Antidromic AVRT?
A) It is always stable
B) It can represent VT
C) It requires immediate surgery
D) It is easily treated with adenosine
E) It does not require diagnosis

B) It can represent VT
Explanation: When diagnosing Antidromic AVRT, it is crucial to consider that the rhythm could represent Ventricular Tachycardia (VT), which necessitates careful evaluation before treatment.

p.67
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

Which of the following is NOT a category of atrial tachycardia?
A) Focal Atrial Tachycardia
B) Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia (MAT)
C) Atrial Fibrillation (AF)
D) Ventricular Tachycardia
E) Atrial Flutter

D) Ventricular Tachycardia
Explanation: Ventricular Tachycardia is not a category of atrial tachycardia; the categories include Focal Atrial Tachycardia, Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia (MAT), Atrial Fibrillation (AF), and Atrial Flutter.

p.66
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What percentage of reentrant tachyarrhythmias in WPW is orthodromic AVRT?
A) 50 - 60%
B) 70 - 80%
C) 90 - 95%
D) 100%
E) 30 - 40%

C) 90 - 95%
Explanation: Orthodromic AVRT accounts for 90 - 95% of the reentrant tachyarrhythmias in WPW, highlighting its prevalence in this condition.

p.71
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

When is treatment for tachycardia often deferred?
A) When the patient is stable
B) When there is evidence of underlying myocardial ischemia
C) When the patient is asymptomatic
D) When the heart rate is below 100 bpm
E) When the patient has a history of arrhythmias

B) When there is evidence of underlying myocardial ischemia
Explanation: Treatment for tachycardia is often deferred unless there is evidence of underlying myocardial ischemia, heart failure, or dyspnea/hypoxia attributed to the tachycardia.

p.72
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which of the following is a common clinical association of multifocal atrial tachycardia?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Aortic stenosis
D) Ventricular hypertrophy
E) Pulmonary embolism

A) Hyperthyroidism
Explanation: Multifocal atrial tachycardia is often associated with conditions such as hyperthyroidism, highlighting its clinical relevance in patients with thyroid dysfunction.

p.74
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

What is the primary characteristic of Atrial Fibrillation (AF)?
A) Regular heart rhythm
B) Chaotic firing of action potentials
C) Consistent P waves on EKG
D) Ventricular rates below 100 bpm
E) Organized mechanical contraction

B) Chaotic firing of action potentials
Explanation: Atrial Fibrillation is defined by chaotic firing of action potentials originating from the pulmonary veins or within the atria, leading to an irregularly irregular rhythm.

p.80
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of atrial flutter?
A) Palpitations
B) Dizziness
C) Chest pain
D) Syncope
E) Severe headache

E) Severe headache
Explanation: Severe headache is not a typical symptom of atrial flutter; common symptoms include palpitations, dizziness, chest pain, and syncope.

p.83
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

Which of the following is NOT a feature of atypical atrial flutter?
A) Regular atrial activity
B) Sawtooth pattern
C) Variable ventricular response
D) Wide QRS complexes
E) Irregularly irregular rhythm

E) Irregularly irregular rhythm
Explanation: Atypical atrial flutter typically presents with a regular atrial activity and a sawtooth pattern, rather than an irregularly irregular rhythm, which is more characteristic of atrial fibrillation.

p.91
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is the primary focus of the provided image source?
A) Basic cardiology concepts
B) Advanced surgical techniques
C) Neurology fundamentals
D) Pediatric medicine
E) Dermatology practices

A) Basic cardiology concepts
Explanation: The image source is from a blog titled 'Basic Cardiology - Part II,' indicating that it focuses on fundamental concepts related to cardiology.

p.90
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Where is the initial focus of depolarization in ventricular arrhythmias typically located?
A) Above the AV node
B) At the AV node
C) Inferior to the AV node
D) In the atria
E) In the pulmonary artery

C) Inferior to the AV node
Explanation: In ventricular arrhythmias, the initial focus of depolarization is located inferior to the AV node, which can be classified as intrahisian or infrahisian.

p.96
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What intervention is often taken for asymptomatic PVCs?
A) Immediate surgery
B) Medication therapy
C) Often nothing
D) Electrical cardioversion
E) Intensive monitoring

C) Often nothing
Explanation: For asymptomatic PVCs, the common intervention is often nothing, unless the PVC burden is significant, indicating a need for further evaluation.

p.97
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is the characteristic of 'unifocal' arrhythmias?
A) Multiple ectopic foci
B) A single ectopic focus
C) Occurring in triplets
D) Associated with heart failure
E) Causing bradycardia

B) A single ectopic focus
Explanation: 'Unifocal' arrhythmias originate from a single ectopic focus, resulting in consistent and repetitive electrical impulses from that one location.

p.99
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is a scar?
A) A type of muscle tissue
B) A permanent mark left on the skin after healing
C) A form of arrhythmia
D) A type of infection
E) A temporary inflammation

B) A permanent mark left on the skin after healing
Explanation: A scar is a mark left on the skin after a wound has healed, representing the body's natural healing process, which can also occur in internal tissues.

p.65
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What does the term 'orthodromic' refer to in navigation?
A) The shortest path between two points on the surface of a sphere
B) A method of sailing against the wind
C) A type of maritime law
D) A technique for underwater navigation
E) A form of celestial navigation

A) The shortest path between two points on the surface of a sphere
Explanation: 'Orthodromic' refers to the shortest distance between two points on the surface of a sphere, commonly used in navigation to determine the most efficient route.

p.68
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a characteristic feature of the P wave in Focal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) It is always identical to sinus rhythm
B) It is often distinctly different from sinus rhythm
C) It is absent
D) It is inverted
E) It is always biphasic

B) It is often distinctly different from sinus rhythm
Explanation: The P wave morphology in Focal Atrial Tachycardia is often distinctly different from that of sinus rhythm, although it can be similar if the focus is close to the sinus node.

p.66
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

Which drugs should be avoided in patients with WPW and atrial fibrillation due to the risk of precipitating ventricular fibrillation?
A) Procainamide
B) Ibutilide
C) Adenosine, BB, CCB, digoxin, Amiodarone
D) Aspirin
E) Statins

C) Adenosine, BB, CCB, digoxin, Amiodarone
Explanation: Drugs with AV nodal blocking effects, such as adenosine, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, and amiodarone, should be avoided in WPW with atrial fibrillation as they can precipitate ventricular fibrillation.

p.71
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What intervention is recommended for chronic, poorly controlled tachycardia?
A) Increased physical activity
B) AV nodal ablation and pacemaker implant
C) Dietary changes
D) Increased fluid intake
E) Regular monitoring only

B) AV nodal ablation and pacemaker implant
Explanation: For chronic, poorly controlled tachycardia that is refractory to other treatments, AV nodal ablation and pacemaker implantation are recommended interventions.

p.75
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What symptom is commonly associated with Atrial Fibrillation?
A) Severe chest pain
B) Profound fatigue
C) Nausea
D) High fever
E) Skin rash

B) Profound fatigue
Explanation: Profound fatigue is one of the highly variable symptoms associated with Atrial Fibrillation, along with weakness, dizziness, and dyspnea, even in patients with rate-controlled AF.

p.74
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

What classification of AF requires pharmacologic treatment or cardioversion?
A) Paroxysmal
B) Persistent
C) Long-standing
D) Permanent
E) None of the above

B) Persistent
Explanation: Persistent Atrial Fibrillation is defined as AF that does not terminate within 7 days and often requires pharmacologic treatment or cardioversion to restore normal rhythm.

p.89
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
A) A slow heart rate below 60 bpm
B) A rapid heart rate originating from the ventricles
C) A normal heart rhythm
D) A type of atrial flutter
E) A condition with no symptoms

B) A rapid heart rate originating from the ventricles
Explanation: Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) is defined as a rapid heart rate that originates from the ventricles, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly.

p.90
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What abnormalities are commonly seen in T waves during ventricular arrhythmias?
A) No abnormalities
B) Inverted T waves only
C) T wave abnormalities due to altered repolarization pathways
D) T waves are always positive
E) T waves are always flat

C) T wave abnormalities due to altered repolarization pathways
Explanation: T wave abnormalities are common in ventricular arrhythmias, primarily due to altered repolarization pathways that result from the abnormal depolarization.

p.95
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What does the term 'bigeminy' refer to in PVC patterns?
A) Every third beat
B) Two consecutive PVCs
C) Every other beat
D) Three consecutive PVCs
E) Four consecutive PVCs

C) Every other beat
Explanation: Bigeminy refers to a pattern where every other beat is a PVC, indicating a regular alternation between normal and premature beats.

p.97
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What does 'bigeminy' refer to in cardiac rhythms?
A) A normal heart rhythm
B) A pattern of alternating beats
C) A type of heart block
D) A rapid heart rate
E) A slow heart rate

B) A pattern of alternating beats
Explanation: 'Bigeminy' describes a pattern where every normal heartbeat is followed by a premature ventricular contraction (PVC), creating an alternating rhythm.

p.105
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is a key point regarding the frequency of Torsades de Pointes episodes?
A) They are always fatal
B) Patients often have frequent intermittent episodes
C) They occur only once in a lifetime
D) They are easily treated with rest
E) They do not require medical intervention

B) Patients often have frequent intermittent episodes
Explanation: Patients with Torsades de Pointes frequently experience intermittent episodes, indicating the need for ongoing medical management rather than relying solely on cardioversion or defibrillation.

p.110
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a common occurrence following reperfusion from an acute myocardial infarction (MI)?
A) Ventricular Escape Rhythm
B) Accelerated Idioventricular Rhythm
C) Atrial Fibrillation
D) Sinus Bradycardia
E) Supraventricular Tachycardia

B) Accelerated Idioventricular Rhythm
Explanation: Accelerated Idioventricular Rhythm often occurs following reperfusion from an acute myocardial infarction, indicating its association with cardiac events.

p.65
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

In which context is the term 'orthodromic' most commonly used?
A) In aviation
B) In maritime navigation
C) In cartography
D) In telecommunications
E) In medical terminology

B) In maritime navigation
Explanation: The term 'orthodromic' is most commonly associated with maritime navigation, where it describes the shortest route over the Earth's surface.

p.68
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a common challenge in diagnosing Focal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) It is easy to differentiate from other arrhythmias
B) It can be mistaken for atrial flutter or atypical AVNRT
C) It has no symptoms
D) It is always associated with heart disease
E) It is only seen in young patients

B) It can be mistaken for atrial flutter or atypical AVNRT
Explanation: Focal Atrial Tachycardia can be difficult to differentiate from atrial flutter or atypical AVNRT, especially at high atrial rates, often necessitating an electrophysiological study.

p.69
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the first step in managing acute, unstable Focal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) Immediate surgery
B) ACLS
C) Vagal maneuvers
D) Administering beta-blockers
E) Observation

B) ACLS
Explanation: For acute, unstable cases of Focal Atrial Tachycardia, Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) is the recommended intervention, although such cases are uncommon.

p.70
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What happens to the P wave morphology if the heart rate is less than 100 bpm?
A) It becomes uniform
B) It disappears
C) It indicates wandering atrial pacemaker
D) It becomes inverted
E) It remains unchanged

C) It indicates wandering atrial pacemaker
Explanation: If there are multiple P wave morphologies and the heart rate is less than 100 bpm, it is classified as a wandering atrial pacemaker, indicating a different rhythm.

p.75
Etiology

Which condition is associated with Atrial Fibrillation?
A) Asthma
B) Cardiomyopathy
C) Diabetes
D) Osteoporosis
E) Gout

B) Cardiomyopathy
Explanation: Cardiomyopathy is listed as one of the pathological causes of Atrial Fibrillation, indicating its role in the development of this arrhythmia.

p.83
EKG Morphology of Bradyarrhythmias

In which leads is the sawtooth pattern of atypical atrial flutter typically observed?
A) Anterior leads
B) Lateral leads
C) Inferior leads
D) Precordial leads
E) Limb leads

C) Inferior leads
Explanation: The sawtooth pattern associated with atypical atrial flutter is typically observed in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF), making it a key diagnostic feature.

p.87
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is a potential consequence of untreated ventricular arrhythmias?
A) Improved cardiac output
B) Heart failure
C) Enhanced exercise tolerance
D) Decreased heart rate
E) Increased blood pressure

B) Heart failure
Explanation: Untreated ventricular arrhythmias can lead to serious complications, including heart failure, due to the inefficient pumping of blood and potential for decreased cardiac output.

p.84
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a significant consideration after cardioversion in patients with atrial flutter or atrial fibrillation?
A) Increased physical activity
B) Anticoagulation
C) Immediate discharge from the hospital
D) No further treatment needed
E) Increased fluid intake

B) Anticoagulation
Explanation: After cardioversion in patients with atrial flutter or atrial fibrillation, it is crucial to consider anticoagulation to prevent thromboembolic events, especially given the risk associated with these arrhythmias.

p.94
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Which condition is associated with ischemia in the context of ventricular arrhythmias?
A) Hypertension
B) Heart attack
C) Diabetes
D) Asthma
E) Stroke

B) Heart attack
Explanation: Ischemia, which can lead to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, is commonly associated with conditions like a heart attack, contributing to the development of ventricular arrhythmias.

p.98
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What differentiates sustained VT from non-sustained VT?
A) QRS morphology
B) Duration of the episode
C) Heart rate
D) Patient age
E) Presence of symptoms

B) Duration of the episode
Explanation: Non-sustained VT lasts less than 30 seconds, while sustained VT lasts longer than 30 seconds, making duration the key differentiating factor.

p.103
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What does Josephson's sign indicate?
A) A prolonged PR interval
B) A small noticing near the low point of the S wave
C) A fusion beat
D) AV dissociation
E) A short QT interval

B) A small noticing near the low point of the S wave
Explanation: Josephson's sign is characterized by a small noticing near the low point of the S wave, which can be an important indicator in EKG interpretation.

p.104
Etiology of Arrhythmias

What electrolyte abnormalities are particularly associated with Torsades de Pointes?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia
D) Hyponatremia
E) Hypernatremia

C) Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia
Explanation: Torsades de Pointes is associated with electrolyte abnormalities, especially hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia, which can contribute to the prolongation of the QT interval.

p.107
Etiology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

Which of the following is an extrinsic pathological cause of Ventricular Fibrillation?
A) Acute Myocardial Infarction
B) Heart failure
C) Digoxin toxicity
D) Cardiomyopathy
E) Fibrosis

C) Digoxin toxicity
Explanation: Digoxin toxicity is listed as an extrinsic pathological cause of Ventricular Fibrillation, along with other factors like antiarrhythmics and electrolyte abnormalities.

p.108
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the recommended intervention for Ventricular Fibrillation?
A) Rest and hydration
B) ACLS and treatment for cardiac arrest
C) Immediate surgery
D) Medication only
E) Observation and monitoring

B) ACLS and treatment for cardiac arrest
Explanation: The intervention for Ventricular Fibrillation involves Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS) and treatment for cardiac arrest, highlighting the urgency of the situation.

p.65
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following is NOT a feature of orthodromic routes?
A) They are the shortest distance between two points
B) They account for the Earth's curvature
C) They can be plotted on a flat map without distortion
D) They are used in both aviation and maritime navigation
E) They may require adjustments for wind and currents

C) They can be plotted on a flat map without distortion
Explanation: While orthodromic routes represent the shortest distance, they cannot be accurately plotted on a flat map without distortion due to the curvature of the Earth.

p.67
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which condition is a pathological etiology for Atrial Tachycardia?
A) Hypertension
B) COPD
C) Normal aging
D) Athletic training
E) Stress

B) COPD
Explanation: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is listed as a pathological etiology for Atrial Tachycardia, along with heart failure and congenital heart disease.

p.66
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Why is the combination of WPW with atrial fibrillation potentially life-threatening?
A) It causes bradycardia
B) It leads to low blood pressure
C) Accessory pathways can allow rapid ventricular rates
D) It is always asymptomatic
E) It prevents any arrhythmias

C) Accessory pathways can allow rapid ventricular rates
Explanation: The combination of WPW with atrial fibrillation is dangerous because accessory pathways can conduct rapidly and have short refractory periods, potentially leading to rapid ventricular rates and degeneration into ventricular fibrillation.

p.72
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the typical heart rate range for focal atrial tachycardia?
A) 60-100 bpm
B) 100-180 bpm
C) 180-240 bpm
D) 40-60 bpm
E) 240-300 bpm

B) 100-180 bpm
Explanation: Focal atrial tachycardia typically presents with a heart rate ranging from 100 to 180 beats per minute, which is characteristic of this arrhythmia.

p.79
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

What characterizes typical Atrial Flutter?
A) It involves the cavotricuspid isthmus (CTI)
B) It is always irregular
C) It occurs only in young patients
D) It is a type of ventricular flutter
E) It does not involve any anatomical structures

A) It involves the cavotricuspid isthmus (CTI)
Explanation: Typical Atrial Flutter is characterized as a macrorentrant tachycardia that involves the cavotricuspid isthmus (CTI), encircling the tricuspid annulus.

p.81
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a common treatment approach for managing ischemia?
A) Increased physical activity
B) Surgical removal of scar tissue
C) Administration of anticoagulants
D) Use of anti-inflammatory medications
E) Enhanced hydration therapy

C) Administration of anticoagulants
Explanation: Anticoagulants are often used to manage ischemia by preventing blood clots that can obstruct blood flow, thereby improving oxygen delivery to tissues.

p.87
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

Which of the following treatments is often used for severe ventricular arrhythmias?
A) Lifestyle changes
B) Anticoagulants
C) Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)
D) Antibiotics
E) Antidepressants

C) Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)
Explanation: An implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is often used as a treatment for severe ventricular arrhythmias to monitor and correct life-threatening arrhythmias automatically.

p.89
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What are Idioventricular Rhythms?
A) Rhythms originating from the atria
B) Slow rhythms originating from the ventricles
C) Normal heart rhythms
D) Rapid heart rhythms from the atria
E) A type of heart block

B) Slow rhythms originating from the ventricles
Explanation: Idioventricular Rhythms are characterized by slow heart rhythms that originate from the ventricles, typically occurring when the normal pacemaker fails.

p.96
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a rare event associated with PVCs that can induce tachyarrhythmia?
A) R on T phenomenon
B) Atrial flutter
C) Ventricular fibrillation
D) Bradycardia
E) Sinus tachycardia

A) R on T phenomenon
Explanation: The R on T phenomenon refers to a PVC occurring on the T wave, which is a rare event that can lead to tachyarrhythmia, specifically ventricular tachycardia (VT).

p.102
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a key characteristic of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) on an EKG?
A) Narrow complex with QRS < 100ms
B) Wide complex with QRS > 140ms
C) Normal QRS duration
D) Regular rhythm with no abnormalities
E) Presence of P waves before QRS complexes

B) Wide complex with QRS > 140ms
Explanation: A defining feature of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) is the wide complex on the EKG, specifically with a QRS duration greater than 140 milliseconds, which helps differentiate it from other arrhythmias.

p.103
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What does AV dissociation refer to?
A) The atria and ventricles contracting in sync
B) The atria and ventricles contracting independently
C) A fusion of atrial and ventricular impulses
D) A prolonged PR interval
E) A normal heart rhythm

B) The atria and ventricles contracting independently
Explanation: AV dissociation occurs when the atria and ventricles are not synchronized in their contractions, which can lead to various arrhythmias and is an important concept in EKG interpretation.

p.104
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the heart rate range for Torsades de Pointes?
A) 60 - 100 bpm
B) 100 - 150 bpm
C) 150 - 220 bpm
D) 220 - 300 bpm
E) 300 - 400 bpm

C) 150 - 220 bpm
Explanation: Torsades de Pointes is characterized by a heart rate that ranges from 150 to 220 beats per minute, indicating its classification as a type of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia.

p.105
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What are common symptoms of Torsades de Pointes?
A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Chest pain, palpitations, diaphoresis, dyspnea, syncope
C) Headache and dizziness
D) Fever and chills
E) Abdominal pain and diarrhea

B) Chest pain, palpitations, diaphoresis, dyspnea, syncope
Explanation: The symptoms of Torsades de Pointes include chest pain, palpitations, diaphoresis, dyspnea, and syncope, indicating the severity of this arrhythmia.

p.69
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What are the common symptoms of Focal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) Severe chest pain
B) Mostly asymptomatic with possible palpitations
C) Constant dizziness
D) Frequent fainting spells
E) Persistent cough

B) Mostly asymptomatic with possible palpitations
Explanation: Focal Atrial Tachycardia is mostly asymptomatic, but patients may report palpitations, especially during higher heart rates or high burden episodes.

p.75
Etiology

Which of the following is NOT a pathological cause of Atrial Fibrillation (AF)?
A) COPD
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Heavy alcohol use
D) Mitral stenosis
E) Hypertension

E) Hypertension
Explanation: While hypertension can contribute to various heart conditions, it is not specifically listed as a pathological cause of Atrial Fibrillation in the provided content, which includes COPD, hyperthyroidism, heavy alcohol use, cardiomyopathy, and mitral stenosis.

p.80
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

What distinguishes atypical atrial flutter from typical atrial flutter?
A) The presence of a single reentrant circuit
B) The atrial rate is always lower
C) The reentrant circuit involves different anatomical structures
D) It is always symptomatic
E) It occurs only in older adults

C) The reentrant circuit involves different anatomical structures
Explanation: Atypical atrial flutter is distinguished from typical atrial flutter by the involvement of different anatomical structures in the reentrant circuit, leading to variations in presentation and management.

p.84
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What are common symptoms of atrial flutter?
A) Severe chest pain
B) Profound fatigue, weakness, dizziness, and dyspnea
C) Constant headache
D) Nausea and vomiting
E) High fever

B) Profound fatigue, weakness, dizziness, and dyspnea
Explanation: Symptoms of atrial flutter can vary widely, with some patients experiencing significant symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, dizziness, and dyspnea, even when the atrial fibrillation is rate-controlled.

p.90
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is a characteristic feature of the QRS complex in ventricular arrhythmias?
A) Narrow QRS complex
B) QRS duration < 80ms
C) Wide QRS complex with morphology opposite to the side of origin
D) QRS complex with no abnormalities
E) QRS duration of exactly 100ms

C) Wide QRS complex with morphology opposite to the side of origin
Explanation: Ventricular arrhythmias typically result in a wide QRS complex, generally with morphology that is opposite to the side of origin, indicating the abnormal conduction pathways.

p.96
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the risk associated with having more than 24% of daily beats as PVCs?
A) Increased risk of heart attack
B) Increased risk of PVC induced cardiomyopathy
C) Increased risk of stroke
D) Increased risk of hypertension
E) No significant risk

B) Increased risk of PVC induced cardiomyopathy
Explanation: Patients with more than 24% of their daily beats being PVCs are at an increased risk of developing PVC induced cardiomyopathy, highlighting the importance of monitoring PVC frequency.

p.99
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which of the following best describes the process of scarring?
A) It involves the regeneration of original tissue
B) It is a result of inflammation and healing
C) It leads to the complete restoration of function
D) It is only found in skin injuries
E) It occurs without any tissue damage

B) It is a result of inflammation and healing
Explanation: Scarring is a result of the body's healing process following inflammation and injury, where fibrous tissue replaces normal tissue, often leading to changes in function.

p.100
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the first step in treating unstable Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
A) Observation
B) ACLS
C) Administering aspirin
D) Referral for surgery
E) Immediate defibrillation

B) ACLS
Explanation: For unstable Ventricular Tachycardia (VT), the treatment is based on Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) protocols, which are critical for managing symptomatic patients.

p.102
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

Which maneuver is typically ineffective in terminating Ventricular Tachycardia?
A) Vagal maneuvers
B) Adenosine administration
C) Cardioversion
D) Carotid massage
E) Exercise

B) Adenosine administration
Explanation: Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) typically does not respond to adenosine or vagal maneuvers, which is a key diagnostic criterion, except in cases of RV outflow VT in normal hearts.

p.104
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is a key characteristic of the QRS complex in Torsades de Pointes?
A) QRS < 80 ms
B) QRS > 120 ms
C) QRS is uniform
D) QRS is absent
E) QRS is always negative

B) QRS > 120 ms
Explanation: In Torsades de Pointes, the QRS complex is greater than 120 milliseconds, which is indicative of the polymorphic nature of this ventricular tachycardia.

p.105
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What should be done for a stable patient with Torsades de Pointes?
A) Immediate defibrillation
B) Correct electrolyte imbalances, especially magnesium and/or potassium
C) Administer sedatives
D) Increase physical activity
E) Perform a surgical intervention

B) Correct electrolyte imbalances, especially magnesium and/or potassium
Explanation: For stable patients, correcting electrolyte imbalances, particularly magnesium and potassium, is crucial in managing Torsades de Pointes effectively.

p.110
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the heart rate range for Accelerated Idioventricular Rhythm?
A) 20 - 50 bpm
B) 60 - 110 bpm
C) 40 - 60 bpm
D) 50 - 70 bpm
E) 110 - 150 bpm

B) 60 - 110 bpm
Explanation: Accelerated Idioventricular Rhythm is characterized by a heart rate between 60 and 110 beats per minute, which distinguishes it from other types of ventricular rhythms.

p.69
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is a successful long-term intervention for chronic, recurrent Focal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) Medication only
B) EP study and catheter ablation of ectopic focus
C) Lifestyle changes
D) Increased physical activity
E) Regular monitoring

B) EP study and catheter ablation of ectopic focus
Explanation: For chronic, recurrent cases that are difficult to control, an electrophysiology (EP) study followed by catheter ablation of the ectopic focus has shown to be very successful.

p.70
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the heart rate range for Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia?
A) 60 - 100 bpm
B) 100 - 250 bpm
C) 250 - 300 bpm
D) 50 - 70 bpm
E) 70 - 100 bpm

B) 100 - 250 bpm
Explanation: Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia is defined by a heart rate ranging from 100 to 250 beats per minute, indicating a rapid atrial rhythm.

p.72
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

Which treatment option is commonly considered for focal atrial tachycardia?
A) Anticoagulation therapy
B) Catheter ablation
C) Pacemaker insertion
D) Cardioversion
E) Beta-blockers only

B) Catheter ablation
Explanation: Catheter ablation is a common treatment option for focal atrial tachycardia, particularly when it is symptomatic or persistent, aiming to eliminate the ectopic focus.

p.84
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

What is the primary therapy for typical atrial flutter?
A) Medication only
B) Catheter ablation involving the CTI
C) Surgical intervention
D) Lifestyle changes
E) Observation without treatment

B) Catheter ablation involving the CTI
Explanation: The primary therapy for typical atrial flutter is catheter ablation involving the cavotricuspid isthmus (CTI), which has a high success rate of approximately 92%.

p.94
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Which of the following is NOT a cause of ventricular arrhythmias?
A) Ischemia
B) Cardiomyopathies
C) Metabolic derangements
D) Physiological factors
E) Electrolyte imbalances

D) Physiological factors
Explanation: The text indicates that there are no physiological causes listed for ventricular arrhythmias, focusing instead on pathological causes such as metabolic derangements, ischemia, and cardiomyopathies.

p.97
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What does Right Bundle Branch Block (RBBB) typically show on an EKG?
A) Shortened PR interval
B) Wide QRS complex with a specific pattern
C) Normal QRS complex
D) Inverted P waves
E) Elevated T waves

B) Wide QRS complex with a specific pattern
Explanation: RBBB is characterized by a wide QRS complex with a specific morphology, indicating a delay in conduction through the right bundle branch.

p.99
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What can excessive fibrosis lead to in the body?
A) Improved organ function
B) Reduced blood flow
C) Enhanced flexibility
D) Complete tissue regeneration
E) Increased muscle strength

B) Reduced blood flow
Explanation: Excessive fibrosis can lead to reduced blood flow and impaired organ function, as the thickened tissue can restrict normal physiological processes.

p.102
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is Josephson’s sign associated with?
A) Atrial Fibrillation
B) Ventricular Tachycardia
C) Bradycardia
D) Supraventricular Tachycardia
E) Ventricular Fibrillation

B) Ventricular Tachycardia
Explanation: Josephson’s sign is a specific finding associated with Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) and is used as part of the diagnostic criteria to differentiate VT from other arrhythmias.

p.104
Etiology of Arrhythmias

Which of the following is a pathological cause of Torsades de Pointes?
A) Increased physical activity
B) Drugs that prolong the QT interval
C) High potassium levels
D) Normal electrolyte levels
E) Genetic predisposition to bradycardia

B) Drugs that prolong the QT interval
Explanation: Pathological causes of Torsades de Pointes include drugs that prolong the QT interval, such as tricyclic antidepressants and certain antiarrhythmics, as well as electrolyte abnormalities.

p.105
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What is a potential risk for patients with Torsades de Pointes?
A) Progression to ventricular fibrillation (VF)
B) Development of hypertension
C) Increased heart rate
D) Decreased oxygen saturation
E) Chronic fatigue syndrome

A) Progression to ventricular fibrillation (VF)
Explanation: Patients with Torsades de Pointes are at high risk of progressing to ventricular fibrillation, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention.

p.110
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the treatment for a stable Ventricular Escape Rhythm?
A) Cardioversion
B) Temporary pacemaker
C) Monitoring
D) Medication
E) Defibrillation

B) Temporary pacemaker
Explanation: The treatment for Ventricular Escape Rhythm, especially when it is unstable, typically involves the use of a temporary pacemaker to restore adequate heart rhythm.

p.74
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is a significant risk associated with Atrial Fibrillation?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Thrombus formation in the left atrial appendage
C) Decreased blood pressure
D) Increased P wave visibility
E) Regular ventricular contraction

B) Thrombus formation in the left atrial appendage
Explanation: In Atrial Fibrillation, the lack of organized mechanical contraction leads to slowed blood movement, particularly in the left atrial appendage, increasing the risk for thrombus formation and necessitating anticoagulation to reduce stroke risk.

p.79
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

What is the definition of Atrial Flutter?
A) A type of ventricular tachycardia
B) A reentrant atrial tachycardia characterized by regular, rapid atrial depolarizations
C) A condition with irregular heartbeats
D) A type of bradycardia
E) A heart condition with no symptoms

B) A reentrant atrial tachycardia characterized by regular, rapid atrial depolarizations
Explanation: Atrial Flutter is defined as a reentrant atrial tachycardia with regular, rapid atrial depolarizations, typically at a rate of 250-350 bpm.

p.80
Supraventricular Arrhythmias: Types and Mechanisms

What is the primary characteristic of macro-reentrant atrial tachycardia?
A) It originates from the ventricles
B) It is a type of atrial flutter
C) It involves a reentrant circuit in the atria
D) It is caused by ischemia
E) It is always asymptomatic

C) It involves a reentrant circuit in the atria
Explanation: Macro-reentrant atrial tachycardia is characterized by a reentrant circuit within the atria, which is a key feature distinguishing it from other types of arrhythmias.

p.83
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter

What is the primary characteristic of atypical atrial flutter on an ECG?
A) Regularly spaced P waves
B) Sawtooth pattern in the inferior leads
C) Wide QRS complexes
D) Absence of P waves
E) Inverted T waves

B) Sawtooth pattern in the inferior leads
Explanation: Atypical atrial flutter is characterized by a sawtooth pattern, particularly visible in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF), which is a distinctive feature of this arrhythmia.

p.87
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What are ventricular arrhythmias primarily characterized by?
A) Irregular heartbeats originating in the atria
B) Abnormal heart rhythms originating in the ventricles
C) Slow heart rates due to high vagal tone
D) Normal heart rhythms with occasional skips
E) Rapid heartbeats originating from the sinoatrial node

B) Abnormal heart rhythms originating in the ventricles
Explanation: Ventricular arrhythmias are specifically defined as abnormal heart rhythms that originate in the ventricles, distinguishing them from other types of arrhythmias that may arise from different parts of the heart.

p.89
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What characterizes Torsades de Pointes?
A) A regular heart rhythm
B) A type of atrial fibrillation
C) A polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
D) A bradyarrhythmia
E) A condition with no electrical activity

C) A polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
Explanation: Torsades de Pointes is characterized as a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, often associated with a prolonged QT interval and can lead to ventricular fibrillation.

p.90
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Which type of ventricular foci is more difficult to localize?
A) Right sided ventricular foci
B) Left sided ventricular foci
C) Both are equally easy to localize
D) Septal foci
E) Atrial foci

D) Septal foci
Explanation: Septal foci in ventricular arrhythmias are noted to be more difficult to localize compared to left or right sided ventricular foci, due to their anatomical positioning.

p.94
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What are the primary pathological causes of ventricular arrhythmias?
A) Genetic mutations
B) Metabolic derangements, ischemia, cardiomyopathies
C) Viral infections
D) High blood pressure
E) Stress and anxiety

B) Metabolic derangements, ischemia, cardiomyopathies
Explanation: The etiology of ventricular arrhythmias is primarily linked to pathological factors such as metabolic derangements, ischemia, and cardiomyopathies, which can disrupt normal heart rhythm.

p.95
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

In which conditions are PVCs commonly observed?
A) Only in athletes
B) In healthy individuals and heart failure
C) Exclusively in older adults
D) Only in patients with arrhythmias
E) In patients with hypertension only

B) In healthy individuals and heart failure
Explanation: PVCs are common in healthy individuals (40-75% over 24-48 hours) and can also occur in conditions such as heart failure and arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia (ARVD).

p.98
Etiology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

Which of the following is a pathological cause of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
A) Hypertension
B) Acute MI
C) Asthma
D) Diabetes
E) Hyperlipidemia

B) Acute MI
Explanation: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a pathological cause of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT), along with other conditions like cardiomyopathy and genetic factors.

p.100
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the treatment for stable Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
A) Immediate surgery
B) Confirm diagnosis and assess left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF)
C) Administer CPR
D) Referral to a psychiatrist
E) No treatment needed

B) Confirm diagnosis and assess left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF)
Explanation: In stable VT, the first step is to confirm the diagnosis and determine if the left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) is known, which guides further management.

p.104
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What causes the irregular rhythms in Torsades de Pointes?
A) Consistent pacing
B) Sudden starts and stops
C) Continuous heart contractions
D) Slow heart rate
E) Regular sinus rhythm

B) Sudden starts and stops
Explanation: Torsades de Pointes is characterized by irregular rhythms that can start and stop suddenly, contributing to its unpredictable nature.

p.107
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the definition of Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)?
A) Regular electrical activity within the ventricles
B) Chaotic electrical activity within the ventricles, rates >300 bpm
C) Slow heart rate with discernable QRS complexes
D) Normal heart rhythm with low blood pressure
E) Consistent heart contractions with high cardiac output

B) Chaotic electrical activity within the ventricles, rates >300 bpm
Explanation: Ventricular Fibrillation is characterized by chaotic electrical activity in the ventricles with rates exceeding 300 beats per minute and no discernable QRS complexes, leading to no cardiac output.

p.81
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to fibrosis in the heart?
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Regular exercise
C) Healthy diet
D) Adequate hydration
E) Low cholesterol levels

A) Acute myocardial infarction
Explanation: Acute myocardial infarction can lead to fibrosis as the heart tissue heals, resulting in scar formation that may disrupt normal electrical conduction and contribute to arrhythmias.

p.89
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What are Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs)?
A) A type of bradycardia
B) Early heartbeats originating in the ventricles
C) A form of atrial fibrillation
D) A type of heart block
E) Normal heartbeats occurring too frequently

B) Early heartbeats originating in the ventricles
Explanation: PVCs are characterized by early heartbeats that originate in the ventricles, disrupting the normal heart rhythm and potentially leading to further arrhythmias.

p.94
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What role do metabolic derangements play in ventricular arrhythmias?
A) They have no effect
B) They can lead to abnormal heart rhythms
C) They improve heart function
D) They only affect the lungs
E) They are only relevant in children

B) They can lead to abnormal heart rhythms
Explanation: Metabolic derangements can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, leading to the development of ventricular arrhythmias.

p.97
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What does the term 'multifocal' refer to in the context of arrhythmias?
A) Originating from a single focus
B) Originating from multiple foci
C) Occurring in pairs
D) A type of heart block
E) A normal heart rhythm

B) Originating from multiple foci
Explanation: 'Multifocal' refers to arrhythmias that originate from multiple ectopic foci in the heart, leading to varied electrical impulses and potentially irregular heartbeats.

p.97
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is a 'compensatory pause' in relation to PVCs?
A) A period of rapid heartbeats
B) A pause after a PVC that allows the heart to reset
C) A continuous heart rhythm
D) A sign of heart failure
E) A type of arrhythmia

B) A pause after a PVC that allows the heart to reset
Explanation: A compensatory pause occurs after a PVC, allowing the ventricles to recover and become refractory to the next sinus beat, which helps the heart reset its rhythm.

p.99
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is fibrosis?
A) A type of cancer
B) The thickening and scarring of connective tissue
C) A viral infection
D) A form of inflammation
E) A type of muscle degeneration

B) The thickening and scarring of connective tissue
Explanation: Fibrosis refers to the process of thickening and scarring of connective tissue, often as a response to injury or inflammation, which can affect organ function.

p.99
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with fibrosis?
A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes
C) Heart failure
D) Asthma
E) Osteoporosis

C) Heart failure
Explanation: Fibrosis is commonly associated with heart failure, as it can lead to stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to pump effectively.

p.103
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is a fusion beat?
A) A beat originating solely from the atria
B) A hybrid beat of ventricular activation from a supraventricular and ventricular impulse
C) A beat with no electrical activity
D) A beat caused by a single ectopic focus
E) A normal sinus beat

B) A hybrid beat of ventricular activation from a supraventricular and ventricular impulse
Explanation: A fusion beat is defined as a hybrid beat that results from the combination of impulses from both supraventricular and ventricular sources, indicating complex electrical activity.

p.109
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What does the EKG morphology of ventricular fibrillation typically show?
A) Regular, narrow QRS complexes
B) A flat line
C) Chaotic, irregular waveforms
D) Sinus rhythm
E) Elevated ST segments

C) Chaotic, irregular waveforms
Explanation: The EKG morphology of ventricular fibrillation is characterized by chaotic, irregular waveforms, indicating a lack of organized electrical activity in the ventricles, which is critical for diagnosing this life-threatening arrhythmia.

p.108
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What should be evaluated in all arrhythmias, including VF?
A) Family history
B) Reversible causes (Hs and Ts)
C) Patient's diet
D) Previous surgeries
E) Age of the patient

B) Reversible causes (Hs and Ts)
Explanation: It is important to evaluate for reversible causes (often referred to as Hs and Ts) in all arrhythmias, including Ventricular Fibrillation, to identify potential underlying issues.

p.84
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

How does the management of atrial flutter differ from atrial fibrillation?
A) Atrial flutter requires no management
B) Management is identical for both conditions
C) Atrial flutter is easier to rate control than AF
D) Atypical atrial flutter is often more difficult to rate control
E) Atrial flutter does not require anticoagulation

D) Atypical atrial flutter is often more difficult to rate control
Explanation: While management strategies for atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation are similar, atypical atrial flutter presents more challenges in rate control compared to atrial fibrillation.

p.90
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the typical duration of the QRS complex in ventricular arrhythmias?
A) < 60ms
B) 60-80ms
C) 80-100ms
D) > 120ms
E) 100-120ms

D) > 120ms
Explanation: The QRS duration in ventricular arrhythmias is generally greater than 120ms, which is a key indicator of the abnormal electrical activity in the ventricles.

p.95
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the duration of a bizarre QRS complex in PVCs?
A) < 80 ms
B) 80-100 ms
C) 100-120 ms
D) > 120 ms
E) 150 ms

D) > 120 ms
Explanation: A bizarre QRS complex in PVCs is characterized by a duration greater than 120 ms, indicating a significant alteration in ventricular depolarization.

p.100
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What are common symptoms of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Chest pain, palpitations, diaphoresis, dyspnea, syncope
C) Headache and dizziness
D) Fever and chills
E) Abdominal pain and diarrhea

B) Chest pain, palpitations, diaphoresis, dyspnea, syncope
Explanation: The symptoms of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) include chest pain, palpitations, diaphoresis, dyspnea, and syncope, indicating the severity of the condition.

p.102
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the significance of the absence of RS in all precordial leads in VT?
A) Indicates a normal heart
B) Suggests a left atrial enlargement
C) Helps confirm the diagnosis of VT
D) Indicates a right-sided heart failure
E) Suggests the presence of atrial fibrillation

C) Helps confirm the diagnosis of VT
Explanation: The absence of RS in all precordial leads is a diagnostic criterion that supports the diagnosis of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT), distinguishing it from other arrhythmias.

p.105
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the appropriate intervention for an unstable patient with Torsades de Pointes?
A) Monitor and wait
B) Administer oral medications
C) ACLS
D) Increase fluid intake
E) Provide oxygen therapy only

C) ACLS
Explanation: For unstable patients experiencing Torsades de Pointes, Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS) is the recommended intervention to manage the critical situation effectively.

p.109
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the typical heart rate during ventricular fibrillation?
A) 60-100 bpm
B) 40-60 bpm
C) 100-150 bpm
D) Irregular and not measurable
E) 30-40 bpm

D) Irregular and not measurable
Explanation: During ventricular fibrillation, the heart rate is irregular and not measurable due to the chaotic electrical activity, which prevents the heart from maintaining a consistent rhythm.

p.84
Management of Bradyarrhythmias

Why is ablation for atypical atrial flutter often more challenging?
A) It is less common
B) It has a higher success rate
C) It involves more complex anatomy
D) It requires less expertise
E) It is easier to diagnose

C) It involves more complex anatomy
Explanation: Atypical atrial flutter tends to be more challenging and less successful than typical flutter due to the more complex anatomy involved in its ablation.

p.95
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What characterizes unifocal PVCs?
A) Occur from multiple ectopic foci
B) Occur from a single ectopic focus
C) Have variable QRS morphology
D) Are always symptomatic
E) Are associated with heart failure

B) Occur from a single ectopic focus
Explanation: Unifocal PVCs arise from a single ectopic focus, resulting in a consistent QRS morphology, distinguishing them from multifocal PVCs.

p.98
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the ventricular rate range for Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
A) 60 - 100 bpm
B) 100 - 150 bpm
C) 110 - 250 bpm
D) 150 - 300 bpm
E) 200 - 400 bpm

C) 110 - 250 bpm
Explanation: The ventricular rate for Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) is defined as being between 110 and 250 beats per minute, which is significantly elevated compared to normal heart rates.

p.102
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which of the following is a sign that may be observed in Ventricular Tachycardia?
A) Cannon A waves
B) Elevated ST segments
C) Inverted T waves
D) Shortened QT interval
E) Regular P waves

A) Cannon A waves
Explanation: Cannon A waves can be observed during a clinical exam in patients with Ventricular Tachycardia (VT), indicating AV dissociation, which is a diagnostic criterion for VT.

p.109
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is the primary treatment for ventricular fibrillation?
A) Anticoagulants
B) Cardioversion
C) Defibrillation
D) Beta-blockers
E) Calcium channel blockers

C) Defibrillation
Explanation: The primary treatment for ventricular fibrillation is defibrillation, which aims to restore a normal heart rhythm by delivering an electrical shock to the heart.

p.96
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What are the common symptoms of Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs)?
A) Chest pain and shortness of breath
B) Asymptomatic to palpitations
C) Severe dizziness and fainting
D) Constant fatigue
E) High fever

B) Asymptomatic to palpitations
Explanation: PVCs can present with a range of symptoms, from being asymptomatic to causing palpitations, indicating varying levels of awareness among patients regarding their condition.

p.100
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

What is a significant risk for patients with stable Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
A) Progression to Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)
B) Development of heart failure
C) Increased blood pressure
D) Stroke
E) Pulmonary embolism

A) Progression to Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)
Explanation: Patients with stable VT are at high risk of progressing to Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention.

p.107
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What often initiates Ventricular Fibrillation?
A) Atrial Fibrillation
B) Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) which degenerates to VF
C) Normal sinus rhythm
D) Bradycardia
E) Heart block

B) Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) which degenerates to VF
Explanation: Ventricular Fibrillation is often initiated by Ventricular Tachycardia, which can degenerate into VF, leading to chaotic electrical activity.

p.110
Mechanisms of Arrhythmia Development

What causes Ventricular Escape Rhythm?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Failure of the primary pacemaker
C) High blood pressure
D) Hyperventilation
E) Increased oxygen levels

B) Failure of the primary pacemaker
Explanation: Ventricular Escape Rhythm generally occurs due to the failure of the primary pacemaker, often accompanied by metabolic abnormalities or myocardial ischemia.

p.95
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What is the definition of Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs)?
A) Depolarization of atrial origin occurring before the next sinus beat
B) Depolarization of ventricular origin occurring before the next sinus beat
C) Depolarization of nodal origin occurring after the next sinus beat
D) Depolarization of ventricular origin occurring after the next sinus beat
E) Depolarization of atrial origin occurring after the next sinus beat

B) Depolarization of ventricular origin occurring before the next sinus beat
Explanation: PVCs are defined as depolarizations originating from the ventricles that occur before the next normal sinus beat, indicating an early contraction.

p.98
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

What defines Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
A) A run of 2 or more PVCs
B) A run of 3 or more PVCs
C) A run of 4 or more PVCs
D) A run of 5 or more PVCs
E) A run of 6 or more PVCs

B) A run of 3 or more PVCs
Explanation: Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) is defined as a run of 3 or more premature ventricular contractions (PVCs), which is a key characteristic of this arrhythmia.

p.97
EKG Morphology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is a characteristic appearance of Left Bundle Branch Block (LBBB) on an EKG?
A) Wide QRS complex
B) Narrow QRS complex
C) Inverted T waves
D) Shortened QT interval
E) Elevated ST segment

A) Wide QRS complex
Explanation: LBBB is characterized by a wide QRS complex on an EKG, indicating a delay in the conduction through the left bundle branch of the heart.

p.107
Etiology of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What intrinsic factor increases the risk of Ventricular Fibrillation?
A) High blood pressure
B) Ejection fraction ≤35%
C) Regular exercise
D) Low cholesterol levels
E) Normal heart rhythm

B) Ejection fraction ≤35%
Explanation: An ejection fraction of 35% or less is an intrinsic risk factor for Ventricular Fibrillation, indicating severe heart dysfunction.

p.108
Bradyarrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Is there such a thing as stable Ventricular Fibrillation?
A) Yes, it can be stable
B) No, there is no stable VF
C) It depends on the patient
D) Only in rare cases
E) Yes, but only temporarily

B) No, there is no stable VF
Explanation: The text clearly states that there is no such thing as stable Ventricular Fibrillation, emphasizing the critical nature of this arrhythmia.

p.109
Clinical Presentation and Symptoms of Arrhythmias

Which of the following is a common clinical presentation of ventricular fibrillation?
A) Bradycardia
B) Sudden cardiac arrest
C) Hypertension
D) Atrial flutter
E) Chest pain

B) Sudden cardiac arrest
Explanation: Ventricular fibrillation often leads to sudden cardiac arrest, as the heart is unable to pump blood effectively due to the disorganized electrical activity, making it a critical emergency situation.

p.108
Management of Ventricular Arrhythmias

What is a key point regarding patients who survive a VF arrest?
A) They do not require further treatment
B) They are often candidates for defibrillators
C) They will always recover fully
D) They should avoid exercise
E) They need immediate surgery

B) They are often candidates for defibrillators
Explanation: Patients who survive a Ventricular Fibrillation arrest are often candidates for defibrillators, either internal or external, depending on the etiology of the arrest, indicating the need for ongoing management.

p.109
Ventricular Arrhythmias: Definitions and Types

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ventricular fibrillation?
A) Irregular heart rhythm
B) Loss of consciousness
C) Effective cardiac output
D) Absence of pulse
E) Rapid onset

C) Effective cardiac output
Explanation: Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by an absence of effective cardiac output, as the heart is not able to pump blood effectively, leading to loss of consciousness and absence of pulse.

Study Smarter, Not Harder
Study Smarter, Not Harder