What are osteophytes and where do they develop in osteoarthritis?
Mushroom-shaped bony outgrowths that develop at the margins of the articular surface.
What is the most common soft tissue tumor in adults?
Lipoma, a benign tumor of fat.
1/144
p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are osteophytes and where do they develop in osteoarthritis?

Mushroom-shaped bony outgrowths that develop at the margins of the articular surface.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the most common soft tissue tumor in adults?

Lipoma, a benign tumor of fat.

p.3
Metastatic Bone Tumors

Which cancers commonly metastasize to the bone?

Any cancer can spread to the bone, but typically multifocal metastases are common. Kidney and thyroid cancers may be solitary. Most involve the axial skeleton.

p.2
Aneurysmal Bone Cyst

What genetic rearrangement is associated with primary Aneurysmal Bone Cyst?

Rearrangements of 17p13, leading to USP6 fusion.

p.2
Ewing Sarcoma

Where do Ewing Sarcomas typically arise?

In the medullary cavity, invading the cortex, periosteum, and soft tissue.

p.2
Fibrous Dysplasia

What is the primary characteristic of Fibrous Dysplasia?

Localized developmental arrest where all components of normal bone are present but do not differentiate into mature structures.

p.2
Aneurysmal Bone Cyst

What is the primary characteristic of Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC)?

Multiloculated blood-filled cystic spaces.

p.2
Fibrous Cortical Defects and Non-ossifying Fibroma

What are Fibrous Cortical Defects also known as?

Metaphyseal fibrous defects.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are 'joint mice' in the context of osteoarthritis?

Dislodged pieces of cartilage that tumble into the joint, forming loose bodies.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is Liposarcoma and what are its key genetic markers?

Liposarcoma is one of the most common sarcomas of adulthood, with key genetic markers including amplification of 12q13-q25 and t(12;16).

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children and adolescents?

Rhabdomyosarcoma.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the 5-year survival rate for synovial sarcoma?

25% to 65%.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which viruses can cause Viral Arthritis?

Parvovirus B19, Rubella, EBV, Hepatitis B and C.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What happens to collagen type II fibers in osteoarthritis?

They are cleaved, yielding fissures and clefts.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which joints are commonly affected by osteoarthritis?

Hips, knees, lower lumbar, cervical, PIP, DIP, 1st carpometacarpal, and 1st tarsometatarsal joints.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which cells predominantly mediate the inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis?

CD4+ T cells.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

Where do synovial sarcomas typically arise?

In the soft tissues near the knee joint.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

In which patients is Salmonella a common cause of arthritis?

Patients with sickle cell disease.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What causes Mycobacterial Arthritis?

M. tuberculosis.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What criteria support the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

Characteristic radiologic findings, sterile turbid synovial fluid with decreased viscosity, poor mucin clot, inclusion-bearing neutrophils, and a combination of RF and CCP antibodies.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the common demographic for Reactive Arthritis?

Men in their 20s or 30s.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What genetic factors are associated with Psoriatic Arthritis?

HLA B27 and HLA-Cw6.

p.7
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What happens to the synovium during an episode of crystallization in gout?

The synovium becomes edematous and congested.

p.7
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What characterizes Chronic Tophaceous Arthritis?

Repetitive precipitation of MSU, encrustation of the articular surface, hyperplastic and fibrotic synovium, pannus formation, and juxta-articular bone erosion.

p.2
Fibrous Dysplasia

What syndrome is associated with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and soft tissue myxoma?

Mazabraud Syndrome.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What are the clinical subtypes of superficial fibromatosis?

Palmar (Dupuytren Contracture), Plantar, and Penile (Peyronie disease).

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What role does TNF play in rheumatoid arthritis?

TNF stimulates synovial cells to secrete proteases that destroy hyaline cartilage and is firmly implicated in the pathogenesis of RA.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

How is Lyme Arthritis diagnosed?

By detecting anti-Borrelia antibodies.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which patients are at risk of developing vasculitis?

Patients with severe erosive disease, rheumatoid nodules, and high titers of RF.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

Which gender is more frequently affected by osteochondromas?

Men are affected three times more often than women.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What is the treatment for symptomatic osteochondromas?

Simple excision.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What causes Enteritis Associated Arthritis?

Gastrointestinal infections by Yersinia, Salmonella, Shigella, and Campylobacter.

p.2
Fibrous Cortical Defects and Non-ossifying Fibroma

What is the typical size of a non-ossifying fibroma?

5-6 cm.

p.7
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the four clinical stages of gout?

Asymptomatic Hyperuricemia, Acute Arthritis, Asymptomatic Intercritical Period, and Chronic Tophaceous Gout.

p.3
Fibrous Dysplasia

What is monostotic fibrous dysplasia and its clinical course?

Occurs equally in boys and girls, early adolescence. Stops enlarging at time of growth plate closure. Commonly affects femur, tibia, ribs, jawbones, calvarium, humerus. Asymptomatic, often an incidental finding. Shows ground-glass appearance with well-defined margination.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are Heberden nodes and who are they more common in?

Prominent osteophytes at the DIP joints, more common in women.

p.3
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is osteoarthritis and its common characteristics?

Also called degenerative joint disease, it is the degeneration of cartilage resulting in structural and functional failure of synovial joints. It is the most common type of joint disease and is considered an intrinsic disease of the cartilage where chondrocytes respond to biochemical and mechanical stress.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What causes Lyme Arthritis?

Borrelia burgdorferi transmitted by deer tick (Ixodes).

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

What are the histological subtypes of chondrosarcoma?

Conventional, clear cell, dedifferentiated, and mesenchymal.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

What is the treatment for conventional chondrosarcomas?

Wide surgical excision.

p.2
Giant Cell Tumor

What type of cells dominate Giant Cell Tumors?

Multinucleated osteoclast-type giant cells.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is a ganglion cyst?

A small cyst located near a joint capsule or tendon sheath, arising from cystic or myxoid degeneration of connective tissue.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

Where do superficial fibromatoses typically arise?

In the deep dermis, subcutis, or muscle.

p.3
Metastatic Bone Tumors

What are the common routes of spread for metastatic bone tumors?

Direct extension, lymphatic or hematogenous spread, and intraspinal seeding via Batson plexus of veins.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is a pannus in rheumatoid arthritis?

A mass of edematous synovium, inflammatory cells, granulation tissue, and fibroblasts that grow over the articular cartilage and cause its erosion.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What factors contribute to the conversion of hyperuricemia to gout?

Age (20-30 y/o), genetic predisposition (HGPRT, multifactorial inheritance), heavy alcohol consumption, obesity, drugs (Thiazides), and lead toxicity (Saturnine Gout).

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the initial symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis?

Malaise, fatigue, and generalized pain.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What percentage of Ankylosing Spondylitis patients are HLA-B27 positive?

90%.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which joints are typically affected in Reactive Arthritis?

Ankles, knees, and feet in an asymmetric pattern.

p.7
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What leads to the remission of an acute gout attack?

The resolubilization of crystals after the episode of crystallization abates.

p.7
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is Gouty Nephropathy?

The presence of MSU or tophi in the renal medullary interstitium or tubules, leading to uric acid nephrolithiasis and pyelonephritis.

p.3
Fibrous Dysplasia

What is polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and its clinical course?

Occurs slightly earlier than monostotic fibrous dysplasia. Commonly affects femur, skull, tibia, humerus, ribs, fibula, radius, ulna, mandible, vertebra. Craniofacial involvement in 50% of those with moderate number of bones affected, 100% in extensive skeletal disease.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the main contributors to the development of rheumatoid arthritis?

Genetic and environmental factors.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the most common location for leiomyomas?

The uterus.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the common symptoms of sudden arthritis?

Swollen joint with restricted range of motion, fever, leukocytosis, and elevated ESR.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which joints are typically affected first in rheumatoid arthritis?

Small joints, generally symmetrically.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What is the most common benign bone tumor?

Osteochondroma.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What percentage of Reactive Arthritis patients are HLA-B27 positive?

More than 80%.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the typical age of onset for Psoriatic Arthritis?

Between the 30s to 50s.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What increases the incidence of contiguous spread in neonates with Suppurative Arthritis?

Underlying epiphyseal osteomyelitis.

p.2
Fibrous Dysplasia

What gene mutation is associated with Fibrous Dysplasia?

Somatic gain-of-function mutation in the GNAS1 gene.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What genetic fusion gene indicates the clonal but self-limited proliferation of certain rapidly growing tumors?

MYH9-USP6 fusion gene (t(17;22)).

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are common symptoms of osteoarthritis?

Deep achy pain that worsens with use, morning stiffness, crepitus, and limitation of range of motion.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What mutations are commonly found in deep fibromatosis?

Mutations in APC or β-catenin.

p.3
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the environmental factors related to osteoarthritis?

Aging and biomechanical stress. OA prevalence increases beyond age 50.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?

Presence of 4 of the following: Morning stiffness, arthritis in 3 or more joints, arthritis of hand joints, symmetric arthritis, rheumatoid nodules, serum RF, and typical radiologic findings.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?

A heterogeneous group of disorders of unknown cause that present with arthritis before age 16 and persist for at least 6 weeks.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

Which subtype of chondrosarcoma is the most common?

Conventional chondrosarcoma.

p.1
Ewing Sarcoma

What is Ewing sarcoma?

A malignant bone tumor characterized by primitive round cells without obvious differentiation.

p.3
Fibrous Dysplasia

What is Mazabraud Syndrome?

Characterized by skeletal features of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia with multiple deformities and intramuscular myxomas in adults. Although benign, it may cause local compression symptoms.

p.3
Metastatic Bone Tumors

What are the radiographic appearances of metastatic bone tumors?

May appear as purely lytic, purely blastic, or mixed lesions. Prostatic adenocarcinoma is predominantly blastic, while kidney, lung, GIT, and melanoma typically present as lytic lesions.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What chromosomal translocation is associated with synovial sarcoma?

SS18-SSX1,2,4 gene translocation.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the characteristics of Mycobacterial Arthritis?

Chronic progressive monoarticular infection with insidious, gradual progressive pain and formation of granulomas with central casseous necrosis.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is hyperuricemia and its significance in Gout?

Hyperuricemia is plasma levels above 6.8 mg/dl and is necessary but not sufficient for the development of gout.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the characteristic deformities associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

Radial elevation of the wrist, ulnar deviation of fingers, and flexion-hyperextension of fingers (Swan-Neck, Boutonniere deformity).

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the common features of seronegative spondyloarthropathies?

Pathologic changes in ligamentous attachments, involvement of sacroiliac joints, absence of RF, and association with HLA-B27.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What do the EXT1 and EXT2 genes encode?

Enzymes that synthesize heparin sulfate.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What happens to osteochondromas at the time of growth plate closure?

They stop growing.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

Where do chondrosarcomas commonly arise?

In the axial skeleton.

p.1
Ewing Sarcoma

What percentage of primary malignant bone tumors does ESFT represent?

6% to 10%.

p.2
Ewing Sarcoma

What indicates a greater degree of neuroectodermal differentiation in Ewing Sarcoma?

The presence of Homer-Wright Rosettes.

p.7
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the pathognomonic hallmark of gout?

Tophi, which are large aggregations of urate crystals surrounded by an intense inflammatory reaction of foreign body giant cells.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What occurs to chondrocytes in osteoarthritis?

Chondrocytes eventually die and are sloughed off.

p.3
Fibrous Dysplasia

What is McCune Albright Syndrome?

Characterized by precocious sexual development, most often in girls, and includes endocrinopathies such as hyperthyroidism, pituitary adenoma (GH secreting), and primary adrenal hyperplasia. Often unilateral with ipsilateral skin pigmentation. Cutaneous macules are large, dark to café au lait color with irregular serpiginous borders on neck, chest, back, shoulder, and pelvic region.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What are the three types of rhabdomyosarcoma?

Alveolar, Embryonal, and Pleomorphic.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which type of arthritis is more common in sexually active women?

Gonococcal arthritis.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the characteristics of chronic synovitis in Lyme Arthritis?

Marked by synoviocyte hyperplasia, fibrin deposition, mononuclear infiltrates, and onion skin thickening of arterial walls.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What marks Gout?

Transient attacks of acute arthritis initiated by crystallization of monosodium urate within and around the joints.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are Baker cysts and where do they develop?

Baker cysts are herniations of the synovium that develop in the posterior knee due to increased intra-articular pressure.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

When do multiple osteochondromas become apparent?

During childhood.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What is the morphology of osteochondromas?

Sessile or pedunculated, 1-20 cm, with a cap composed of benign hyaline cartilage of varying thickness.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the typical age of onset for Ankylosing Spondylitis?

2nd to 3rd decades of life.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What triggers Reactive Arthritis?

An autoimmune reaction initiated by a prior infection.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which joints are predominantly affected in Psoriatic Arthritis?

The peripheral joints of the hands and feet, with the DIP joints first affected in an asymmetric distribution.

p.1
Ewing Sarcoma

What is the common radiographic appearance of Ewing sarcoma?

Destructive lytic tumor with permeative margins that extends into the surrounding soft tissues.

p.2
Ewing Sarcoma

What is the 5-year survival rate for Ewing Sarcoma with treatment?

75%, with a long-term cure rate of 50%.

p.3
Fibrous Dysplasia

What are the morphological characteristics of fibrous dysplasia?

Well circumscribed, intramedullary, vary in size. Larger lesions expand and distort the bone. Tan-white, gritty composed of curvilinear trabeculae of woven bone surrounded by moderately cellular fibroblastic proliferation. Mimics Chinese characters. Bone lacks prominent osteoblastic rimming. Nodules of hyaline cartilage of disorganized growth plate. Cystic degeneration, hemorrhage, foamy macrophages.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What characterizes deep fibromatosis?

Large, infiltrative masses that recur but do not metastasize.

p.3
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the phases of osteoarthritis pathogenesis?

1. Chondrocyte injury due to genetic and biochemical factors. 2. Early OA where chondrocytes proliferate and secrete mediators to remodel the cartilaginous matrix. 3. Late OA characterized by repetitive injury and chronic inflammation leading to chondrocyte dropout, marked loss of cartilage, and extensive subchondral bone changes.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the main causative agent of arthritis in older children and adults?

S. aureus.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the types of Crystal-Induced Arthritis?

Endogenous (monosodium urate, calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate, basic calcium phosphate) and Exogenous (steroid ester crystals, talcum, biomaterials polyethylene, and methyl methacrylate).

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the clinical manifestations of leukocytoclastic vasculitis?

Purpura, cutaneous ulcers, and nail bed infarction.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What percentage of osteochondromas are solitary?

85%.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What mediators are involved in the pathogenesis of JIA?

TH1 and TH17 cell mediators.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

Which gender is more frequently affected by chondrosarcomas?

Men are affected twice as frequently as women.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the characteristic deformity seen in Psoriatic Arthritis?

Pencil in a cup deformity.

p.2
Giant Cell Tumor

What is the typical age range for Giant Cell Tumor occurrence?

20s to 40s.

p.7
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is Pseudogout and what causes it?

Pseudogout, also known as chondrocalcinosis, is caused by CPPD deposition and occurs in older patients.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the typical size and appearance of superficial fibromatoses?

Less than 5 cm, circumscribed, slightly infiltrative.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

Where are fibrosarcomas most commonly seen?

In the retroperitoneum, thigh, knees, and distal extremities.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is a characteristic feature of leiomyosarcomas?

Eosinophilic spindle cells with blunt-ended hyperchromatic nuclei arranged in interweaving fascicles.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which bacteria is prevalent in causing arthritis during late adolescence?

Gonococcus.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What diagnostic method is used for arthritis if it yields purulent fluids?

Joint aspiration.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What characterizes Acute Arthritis in Gout?

Dense neutrophilic infiltrates that permeate the synovium and monosodium urate crystals found in the cytoplasm of neutrophils.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What hereditary disease is associated with multiple osteochondromas?

Multiple hereditary exostosis syndrome.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

At what age do chondrosarcomas usually occur?

In their 40s or older.

p.1
Ewing Sarcoma

What is the Ewing Sarcoma Family Tumors (ESFT)?

A group that includes Ewing Sarcoma and Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumor (PNET).

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor?

A tumor that develops in the lining of joints, tendon sheaths, and bursae, and can be diffuse or localized.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A chronic inflammatory disorder of autoimmune origin that principally attacks the joints.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

Which variant of rhabdomyosarcoma has the best prognosis?

Sarcoma botyroides.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What deficiency is common in patients with gonococcal arthritis?

Complement (C5, C6, C7) deficiency.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the distinctive morphological changes in Gout?

Acute Arthritis, Chronic Tophaceous arthritis, Tophi in various sites, and Gouty nephropathy.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the risk factors for JIA?

HLA and PTPN22, similar to RA.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What are the characteristics of hereditary osteochondroma at the genetic level?

Associated with germline loss of function in EXT1 or EXT2 genes.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

What is the imaging characteristic of chondrosarcomas?

Calcified matrix appears as foci of flocculent densities.

p.1
Ewing Sarcoma

What genetic translocation is most commonly associated with Ewing sarcoma?

(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, fusing EWS and FLI1.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is Nodular Fasciitis?

A self-limited fibroblastic and myofibroblastic proliferation that occurs in young adults, often with a history of trauma.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are rheumatoid factors?

Serum IgM or IgA that bind to Fc portions of their own IgG, often depositing in the joints as immune complexes.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

When are solitary osteochondromas typically diagnosed?

In late adolescence and early adulthood.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A condition characterized by the destruction of articular cartilage and bony ankylosis, especially in the sacroiliac and apophyseal joints.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the triad of symptoms in Reactive Arthritis (Reiter Syndrome)?

Arthritis, non-gonococcal urethritis or cervicitis, and conjunctivitis.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is Psoriatic Arthritis?

A chronic inflammatory arthropathy associated with psoriasis that affects the peripheral and axial joints and entheses.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

How do bacteria typically enter the joints in Suppurative Arthritis?

Via hematogenous spread from distant sites.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are rheumatoid subcutaneous nodules?

Firm, non-tender, round-oval nodules arising from subcutaneous tissue, resembling necrotizing granulomas.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which type of arthritis predominates in children under 2 years old?

H. influenza arthritis.

p.6
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which joint is most commonly involved in arthritis?

The knee.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the radiologic hallmarks of rheumatoid arthritis?

Joint effusion, juxta-articular osteopenia with erosions, narrowing of joint spaces, and loss of articular cartilage.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

How does JIA differ from RA?

Oligoarthritis is more common, systemic disease is more frequent, large joints are more affected than small joints, rheumatoid nodules and factors are usually absent, and ANA is common.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

Where do osteochondromas develop?

In bones of endochondral origin, arising from the metaphysis near the growth plate of long tubular bones.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the typical duration of Enteritis Associated Arthritis?

About a year, and it generally clears.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the primary goal of treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?

To relieve pain and inflammation and to slow or arrest joint destruction.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

What is chondrosarcoma?

A malignant tumor that produces cartilage.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

What is the clinical course of conventional chondrosarcomas?

Most are grade 1 with a 5-year survival rate of 80-90%, rarely metastasize.

p.1
Ewing Sarcoma

What is the typical age group affected by Ewing sarcoma?

Younger than 20 years old.

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