p.2
Pathogenesis of Asthma
What test result is positive in allergic asthma?
Positive allergen skin tests.
p.1
Pathogenesis of Asthma
Which of the following is NOT a trigger in the pathogenesis of asthma?
b) alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency.
p.1
Community-Acquired Pneumonia
What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
p.1
Pulmonary Tuberculosis Diagnosis and Imaging
Which of the following may NOT be shown in chest radiographs of pulmonary tuberculosis?
e) enlargement of the mediastinum.
p.2
Pathogenesis of Asthma
What family history aspect is noted in allergic asthma?
Allergic disorders that run in families.
p.2
Pathogenesis of Asthma
What is a common history factor in allergic asthma?
Long history of cigarette smoking.
What complications may occur as a result of antiretroviral therapy?
Lipodystrophy and metabolic syndrome.
p.20
Chronic Kidney Disease
What is a primary mechanism of anemia in chronic kidney disease?
Erythropoietin deficiency.
p.16
Intensive Care Management
Who is at risk of developing multiple organ failure?
Patients with co-morbidities, especially limited functional cardiorespiratory reserve.
p.11
Chronic Kidney Disease
What are some undesirable effects of loop diuretics?
Urate retention causing gout, hyperkalemia, hypercalciuria, hypermagnesemia, and decreased glucose tolerance.
Which clinical element is NOT associated with increased vertical HIV transmission?
Use of an effective antiretroviral regimen.
p.4
Pulmonary Tuberculosis Diagnosis and Imaging
Which drugs are considered first-line anti-TB drugs?
Isoniazid and rifampicin.
What is the host cell receptor for HIV?
The gp120 surface glycoprotein.
What predisposes HIV-infected individuals to encapsulated bacterial infections?
Cell-mediated immune deficiency.
p.12
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What are some causes of extracellular volume depletion (hypovolemia)?
Hemorrhage, burns, gastrointestinal losses, prolonged bed rest, and use of diuretics.
p.6
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
Which groups are at high risk of developing sepsis?
Elderly (> 65 years), very young patients (newborns), patients with a history of sepsis, patients with permanent medical devices, and pregnant women.
p.16
Intensive Care Management
What is a metabolic response to trauma, major surgery, and severe infections?
Increased gluconeogenesis.
p.19
Chronic Kidney Disease
What is the main mechanism of anemia in chronic kidney disease?
Erythropoietin deficiency.
p.20
Chronic Kidney Disease
What factors contribute to vascular calcifications in chronic kidney disease?
Increased product Calcium x Phosphorus, Hyperparathyroidism, Inflammation, Uremia.
p.27
Intensive Care Management
What must be adapted to the patient response in burn patients?
Intravenous fluid quantity.
p.5
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What is healthcare-associated sepsis?
Sepsis occurring in patients discharged in the last 30 days or those in chronic care units and closed communities.
p.15
Intensive Care Management
What are the causes of shock?
Hypovolemic, distributive (anaphylaxis and burns), and cardiogenic (obstruction and restriction of cardiac flow).
p.29
Intensive Care Management
What is a characteristic of burns in which healing lasts longer than 3 weeks?
They will form hypertrophic scars.
p.3
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
What is a key symptom in the diagnosis of COPD?
History of dyspnea and productive cough in a chronic smoker.
p.11
Chronic Kidney Disease
Which syndromes are associated with distal convoluted tubules?
Gitelman Syndrome, Liddle syndrome, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, Gordon Syndrome, and SIADH.
p.30
Intensive Care Management
What are Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)?
Rare life-threatening exfoliative skin disorders.
p.10
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What can cause increased renal bicarbonate losses?
Treatment with acetazolamide, accentuated catabolism of lysine and arginine, proximal renal tubular acidosis, hyperparathyroidism, and tubular lesions.
p.30
Intensive Care Management
What is a key treatment step for Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)?
Immediate discontinuation of the triggering medication.
p.5
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What are key parameters to check in sepsis?
Fever, bradypnea, bradycardia, hypertension, and hyperoxia.
p.14
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What is a cause of metabolic alkalosis related to calcium levels?
Hypocalcemia from malignant diseases.
p.30
Intensive Care Management
What is a common characteristic of necrotizing soft tissue infections?
They evolve rapidly, produce severe toxicity, and cause necrosis of the affected tissues.
p.17
Intensive Care Management
What diseases are associated with acute respiratory distress syndrome due to indirect lung damage?
Cardiopulmonary bypass, drug overdose (heroin, barbiturates), lung reperfusion injury after lung transplantation or pulmonary embolectomy, altitude sickness, drowning.
p.27
Intensive Care Management
Can ARDS be diagnosed solely based on X-rays?
No, it cannot be diagnosed solely based on X-rays.
p.18
Intensive Care Management
What is a characteristic of myocardial function in septic shock?
Myocardial dysfunction - low ejection fraction.
p.21
Chronic Kidney Disease
In what situation can renal damage be reversible in chronic kidney disease?
Removal of an obstruction of the urinary tract.
What are the global targets for the eradication of the HIV/AIDS epidemic by 2030 under the United Nations HIV/AIDS Program?
90% of all people living with HIV should be diagnosed, 90% of diagnosed should receive ARV therapy, and 90% of those receiving ARV should have viral suppression.
p.11
Chronic Kidney Disease
Which of the following is NOT an undesirable effect of loop diuretics?
Increased glucose tolerance.
p.11
Chronic Kidney Disease
What causes decreased blood pressure when switching from decubitus to orthostatism?
Interference of medication with peripheral vasoconstriction, decreased circulating volume, medication interference with autonomic function, and drugs that block ß-adrenoceptors.
p.15
Intensive Care Management
What is the correct sequence of events in the SELDINGER technique?
Vascular puncture with a needle, advance of the guide, removal of the needle, dilation of the vessel, catheter advancement on guide, removal of the guide, catheter in situ.
p.22
Chronic Kidney Disease
What is a specific complication of hemodialysis related to blood pressure?
Intradialytic hypotension.
p.6
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What is the goal of fluid therapy in sepsis?
To normalize lactate levels in patients with high lactate levels.
p.2
Pathogenesis of Asthma
What are the disease control medications for asthma?
Inhaled long-acting β2 agonists, leukotriene modifiers, inhaled corticosteroids, inhaled short-acting β2 agonists, theophylline preparations.
p.9
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
What should be done with any infection in patients at risk for endocarditis?
It should be promptly investigated and treated correctly.
p.27
Intensive Care Management
What is the most common cause of death in patients with large burns?
Sepsis originated from the burned skin.
p.20
Chronic Kidney Disease
What are risk factors for cardiovascular disease in chronic kidney disease patients?
High blood pressure, Diabetes mellitus, Dyslipidemia.
p.12
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
How is the volume status evaluated?
By measuring central venous pressure, postural changes in blood pressure, and urinary flow at regular intervals.
p.13
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What causes metabolic acidosis with a normal anionic gap?
Increased losses of bicarbonate in the gastrointestinal tract.
p.27
Intensive Care Management
In which type of burn patients does Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) often appear?
In patients with minor and moderate inhalation burns.
p.28
Intensive Care Management
What must be done to stop the combustion process?
The burning flame must be completely extinguished with water or by smothering.
p.6
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What is required for intra-articular infections in sepsis?
An arthroscopic lavage and possibly debridement for joint prostheses.
p.3
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
What is a common treatment for acute exacerbations of COPD?
Oral corticosteroid therapy.
p.10
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
Which medications may cause sodium retention?
Estrogens, mineralocorticoids, and licorice, but not loop diuretics.
p.4
Pulmonary Tuberculosis Diagnosis and Imaging
What adverse effect can Rifampicin cause?
May increase liver enzymes.
p.11
Chronic Kidney Disease
What are potassium-saving diuretics?
Eplerenone, Amiloride, Triamterene, and Spironolactone.
p.30
Intensive Care Management
What type of care is often required for necrotizing soft tissue infections?
Aggressive fluid resuscitation, meticulous care, and surgical treatment.
p.9
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
What is recommended for the prevention of endocarditis in patients undergoing dental procedures?
Antibiotic prophylaxis and chlorhexidine gargle.
p.13
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What is a cause of hyperkalemia related to tissue damage?
Rhabdomyolysis/tissue damage.
p.8
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
What is the aim of antibiotic chemoprophylaxis in splenectomy or splenic dysfunction?
To prevent severe meningococcal sepsis.
p.5
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
Which statement about antibiotic allergies is false?
The color of the antibiotic(s) to which patients are allergic.
p.15
Intensive Care Management
What are the characteristic elements of hypovolemic shock?
Cold, clammy skin; low sympathetic tone; lactic acidosis; confusion and irritability.
What is true about Group M of HIV-1?
a) has a high degree of genetic diversity, b) has subtypes (clades), e) was transmitted from chimpanzee to gorilla and then to human.
p.18
Intensive Care Management
What is the cardiac output status in septic shock?
Cardiac output is usually increased.
p.9
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
Which antibiotics belong to the quinoline class?
Levofloxacin, ciprofloxacin, and moxifloxacin.
What is true about the evaluation of HIV viral load?
a) has prognostic value, e) is the standard marker for evaluating the effectiveness of antiviral treatment.
Which statement regarding HIV epidemiology is true?
Sub-Saharan Africa is the most affected region.
p.21
Chronic Kidney Disease
How can phosphorus reduction be achieved in chronic kidney disease?
Through dietary restriction.
p.22
Chronic Kidney Disease
How does dialysis maintain electrolyte balance?
By maintaining the concentration of electrolytes within normal limits.
What regimens are recommended when initiating antiretroviral therapy?
Combination of two nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors with either a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, a boosted protease inhibitor, or an integrase inhibitor.
p.4
Pulmonary Tuberculosis Diagnosis and Imaging
What is a potential adverse effect of Ethambutol?
May cause retrobulbar optic neuritis.
p.29
Intensive Care Management
What is a true statement regarding the metabolism of patients with extensive burns?
The metabolism increases as a consequence of the hormonal response to trauma caused by the burns.
p.30
Intensive Care Management
What is a treatment option for necrotizing soft tissue infections?
Surgical treatment is often required.
p.7
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What characterizes delayed reactions to antibiotics?
They often occur after a dose of treatment and can lead to severe conditions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis.
p.9
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
What should patients at risk for endocarditis be instructed to recognize?
Signs of infectious endocarditis.
p.22
Chronic Kidney Disease
What is a long-term complication of dialysis that involves protein deposits?
Dialysis-associated amyloidosis.
What occurs during the clinical latency period of HIV infection?
b) the virus continues to replicate, c) the person is contagious, e) the interval of progression to symptomatic disease is about 10 years (without effective antiretroviral treatment).
p.28
Intensive Care Management
What does the patient's palm represent in terms of burned area calculation?
Approximately 1% of the total body surface area (TBSA).
p.27
Intensive Care Management
Which statement about electrical burns is true?
The superficial muscles may appear intact, and the deep ones may be injured.
p.21
Chronic Kidney Disease
What therapy can reverse renal damage in glomerulonephritis?
Administration of immunosuppressive therapy.
When should antiretroviral therapy be started in HIV patients?
Immediately in a patient with primary HIV infection.
p.21
Chronic Kidney Disease
What causes defective osteoid mineralization (osteomalacia)?
Deficiency of 1,25-(OH)2D3.
p.18
Intensive Care Management
What effect does massive transfusion have on oxygen affinity?
It increases the affinity of oxygen.
p.20
Chronic Kidney Disease
Which drugs are used to control parathyroid hormone levels in chronic kidney disease?
Calcitriol, Analogs of vitamin D, Calcimimetic agents.
p.29
Intensive Care Management
What is the false statement regarding daily protein intake necessary in patients with extensive burns?
0.5-1.0 g of protein/kg daily.
p.28
Intensive Care Management
What is a potential risk of tangential excision?
It can produce high blood loss.
What does the imaging appearance of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia resemble?
'Matte glass' appearance.
p.17
Intensive Care Management
What conditions are associated with acute respiratory distress syndrome due to direct lung damage?
Sepsis, aspiration of gastric contents, severe trauma with shock and multiple transfusions, transfusion-associated lung injury (TRALI), fatty embolism.
p.5
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What is a key characteristic of Clindamycin?
It is a useful agent in severe streptococcal or staphylococcal cellulitis.
p.8
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
What is the correct dosage of oral isoniazid for adults in tuberculosis chemoprophylaxis?
300 mg daily for 6 months.
What is the purpose of determining viral genotype in HIV infection?
b) is used to guide antiretroviral therapy, c) identifies well-defined mutations.
p.4
Pulmonary Tuberculosis Diagnosis and Imaging
What are the cardinal symptoms of pulmonary tuberculosis?
Cough, headache, haemoptysis, chest pain, dyspnea.
p.20
Chronic Kidney Disease
What are the renal function replacement therapies?
Hemodialysis, Peritoneal dialysis, Kidney transplant.
p.4
Pulmonary Tuberculosis Diagnosis and Imaging
What are the adverse effects of Isoniazid?
May cause polyneuropathy secondary to vitamin-B6 deficiency, rash, and arthralgia.
What is true about HIV?
HIV is a retrovirus with reverse transcriptase, has two major types (HIV-1 and HIV-2), and most antiretroviral drugs are active on both types.
What clinical manifestations may suggest HIV primary infection?
Fever, myalgias, arthralgias, lymphadenopathy, oral mucosa ulcerations, pinkish maculopapular rash, and HIV-associated cachexia.
p.7
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What are immediate hypersensitivity reactions associated with?
Anaphylaxis shock, mediated by immunoglobulin E, and begin within one hour of the first dose.
p.28
Intensive Care Management
What is autografting?
Using full thickness or partial thickness grafts from the patient.
How does the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV relate to viral load?
It increases directly in proportion to the viral load.
p.8
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
What is the dosage of rifampicin for adults in meningitis chemoprophylaxis?
600 mg double dose daily for 2 days.
p.8
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
What is the aim of antibiotic chemoprophylaxis in tuberculosis?
To prevent infections in tuberculin-negative individuals, children with uninfected mothers, and immunocompromised patients.
p.5
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
Is Clindamycin effective against anaerobes?
No, it is inactive against anaerobes.
p.10
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What are the major regulatory factors of transport in the proximal tubules?
Angiotensin II, ephedrine, adrenaline, epinephrine, and aldosterone.
Which fluids are involved in HIV transmission?
Blood, cerebrospinal fluid, sperm, and cervical secretions.
p.7
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
Which parameter is NOT monitored at the initial choice of antibiotic regimen in sepsis?
Toxicity is not a parameter to be monitored.
p.16
Intensive Care Management
What is a late complication of tracheal intubation?
Tracheal stenosis and fibrosis.
p.28
Intensive Care Management
What does burn excision involve?
Removal of the affected skin and soft tissue down to the fascia.
What is a clinical symptom of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia?
Insidious onset with fever and dry cough.
p.8
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
What information is required when a patient complains of an antibiotic allergy?
Details about the antibiotic's smell, time of onset of symptoms, nature of symptoms, time until symptoms cease, and previous use of the antibiotic.
p.18
Intensive Care Management
What are signs of hemodynamic changes in hypovolemic shock?
Signs of myocardial insufficiency.
What factors influence HIV transmission?
a) related to the level of viral load, c) can be reduced by effective antiretroviral therapy, d) increases when sexually transmitted diseases are associated.
p.18
Intensive Care Management
What is the central venous pressure (PVC) in hypovolemic shock?
Low PVC and pulmonary arterial occlusion pressure (POAP).
p.17
Intensive Care Management
How can acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) be defined?
Respiratory distress, pulmonary stiffness, increased lung compliance resulting in low inflationary pressures, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure >18 mmHg, chest radiography showing new, non-uniform or homogeneous, bilateral, diffuse pulmonary infiltrates.
p.6
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What should be avoided in fluid therapy for sepsis?
Hydroxyethyl starch solutions.
p.14
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What overdose can cause metabolic acidosis?
Aspirin: overdose of salicylates.
p.3
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
What diagnostic ratio is indicative of COPD?
Low FEV1 / CVF ratio and low PEF.
p.7
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What parameters should be evaluated at the initial choice of antibiotic strategy in sepsis?
Route of administration, frequency of administration, and duration of treatment.
p.13
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
Which condition can cause hypernatremia due to hormonal imbalance?
Pituitary diabetes insipidus.
p.28
Intensive Care Management
When should burn lesions be covered?
Begins 21 days after the burn is produced.
p.7
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What decision must be made at 72 hours when most cultures become available?
One of the following: stopping antibiotic treatment, deescalation to oral treatment, change of treatment, continuation of intravenous treatment, or discharge with oral antibiotics.
p.5
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What defines 'septic shock'?
Patients who require vasopressor support to maintain a mean blood pressure of at least 65 mmHg and have a high serum lactate concentration (> 2 mmol/L) despite adequate volume resuscitation.
p.9
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
What should patients at risk for endocarditis receive after gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract procedures?
Appropriate antibacterial therapy covering organisms that cause endocarditis.
p.6
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What is the recommended initial fluid resuscitation volume for sepsis?
30 ml/kg in the first 3 hours.
p.8
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
What is the recommended dosage of Phenoxymethylpenicillin for antibiotic chemoprophylaxis in splenic dysfunction?
500 mg double dose daily.
p.14
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What ingestion can cause metabolic alkalosis in kidney disease?
Massive or reduced bicarbonate ingestion.
p.14
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What is a cause of metabolic acidosis with an enlarged anion gap related to diabetes?
Ketoacidosis: diabetic or alcohol.
p.8
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
Which statement about antibiotic chemoprophylaxis in tuberculosis is false?
It aims to prevent infections in children with infected mothers.
p.11
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What parameters are measured in gasometry analysis of arterial or venous blood?
Partial pressures of carbon dioxide (PCO2) and oxygen (PO2), calculated base excess (BE), bicarbonate (HCO3), and blood pH.
p.10
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What is the function of the distal convoluted tubule?
Secretion of drugs and drug metabolites, reabsorption of solvents, and involvement in sodium and chlorine transport.
p.13
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What is a cause of hypernatremia related to water intake?
Deficiency of water intake: feeling thirsty or affected state of consciousness.
What is a common characteristic of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia in HIV patients?
Occurs often in patients with CD4 lymphocyte level < 200 cells/mmc.
p.6
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What is the first step in the treatment for sepsis?
Administer oxygen to maintain SpO2 > 96%.
p.22
Chronic Kidney Disease
What is a complication associated with hemodialysis?
Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome.
p.27
Intensive Care Management
Do patients with inhalation burns typically require large quantities of intravenous fluids?
No, they rarely need large quantities.
When should post-exposure HIV prevention be administered?
Within the first 72 hours after exposure.
p.15
Intensive Care Management
What are the signs and symptoms of sepsis?
Vasoconstriction with cold periphery, nausea, vomiting, slow capillary refilling.
p.2
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
What cells are part of the chronic inflammatory infiltrate in COPD?
Neutrophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, macrophages.
p.14
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What renal condition can lead to metabolic acidosis?
Renal failure: accumulation of organic acids.
p.3
Community-Acquired Pneumonia
What is a recommended home antibiotic treatment for community-acquired pneumonia (CRB-65=0)?
Amoxicillin orally 500 mg three times a day.
p.17
Intensive Care Management
What are early complications of tracheostomy?
Hypoxia, stomach infections, pneumonia, cardiac arrhythmias, hypotension.
p.14
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
Which condition related to diarrhea can cause metabolic alkalosis?
Villous adenoma or congenital chloride.
p.12
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What causes hyponatremia with normal extracellular volume (euvolemia)?
Increased sensitivity to ADH, abnormal release of ADH, mental illness, tubulointerstitial renal disease, and acute tubular necrosis recovery phase.
p.30
Intensive Care Management
What is a treatment approach for SJS and TEN regarding affected tissue?
Debridement of devitalized tissue and use of adequate temporary wound coverage.
p.7
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
Are delayed reactions immune mediated?
No, they are not immune mediated.
p.28
Intensive Care Management
What is the Wallace rule of 9s used for?
To calculate the burned area.
p.2
Pathogenesis of Asthma
What are the clinical features of acute severe asthma?
Inability to complete a sentence in one breath, bradycardia or hypotension, cyanosis, intense vesicular breath sounds, PaO2 < 60 mmHg.
p.5
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What is the bone concentration characteristic of Clindamycin?
It provides low bone concentration and is not used in the treatment of osteomyelitis.
p.21
Chronic Kidney Disease
Which endocrine abnormality does NOT occur in chronic kidney disease?
Increased serum testosterone levels.
p.12
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What causes hyponatremia with decreased extracellular volume (hypovolemia)?
Hemorrhage, antidepressant treatment, severe potassium depletion, burns, and pancreatitis.
p.7
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What symptoms are associated with immediate hypersensitivity reactions?
Facial edema, rash, and mild dyspnea.
p.12
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What are some causes of abnormal release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
Hypothyroidism, severe potassium depletion, osmotic diuresis, pancreatitis, and diuretics.
p.8
Antibiotic Chemoprophylaxis
What is the aim of antibiotic chemoprophylaxis in meningitis due to Hemophilus influenzae type B?
To decrease nasopharyngeal colonization and prevent contact infection.
p.14
Hydroelectrolytic and Acid-Base Balance
What bacterial condition can cause metabolic acidosis?
D-lactate: bacterial proliferation in the small intestine.
p.15
Intensive Care Management
What are some complications of radial artery cannulation?
Distal ischemia, loss of venous pulsations, infection, accidental drug injection, and disconnection.
p.6
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What should be done quickly in the treatment of sepsis?
Administer fluids quickly.
p.17
Intensive Care Management
What are indications for the use of non-invasive ventilation?
Low level of consciousness, obstructive sleep apnea, severe pneumonia, cardiogenic pulmonary edema, chest wall deformities/neuromuscular disease.
p.22
Chronic Kidney Disease
What complication can arise from hemodialysis related to vascular access?
Malfunction, thrombosis of the vascular access.
p.6
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What is 'source control' in the context of sepsis?
Addressing the underlying causes of sepsis, such as drainage of abscesses or obstruction.
p.6
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What is a common cause of sepsis that may require intervention?
Obstruction of the bile and urinary tract.
Which conditions are directly related to HIV?
a) dementia associated with HIV infection, b) sensitive polyneuropathy, d) enteropathy by atrophy of the intestinal villi, e) tumors caused by oncogenic viruses.
p.2
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
What are common comorbidities associated with COPD?
Obesity, ischemic heart disease, hypertension, diabetes, cancer.
p.27
Intensive Care Management
What is the main treatment for ARDS?
Excessive fluid resuscitation is NOT the main treatment.
p.5
Sepsis and Bacterial Treatment
What is a significant concern with Clindamycin?
It is widely used due to its association with Clostridium difficile infection.
p.27
Intensive Care Management
What is involved in the initial assessment of burn patients?
Evaluation of the respiratory tract, respiration, and circulation.
