How is Haemophilus influenzae primarily spread?
Through contact and aerosols.
What organism is the most likely cause of a 12-year-old male's condition with enlarged tonsils, malaise, fever, and sore throat, showing gram-positive cocci that are catalase negative, beta hemolytic, and bacitracin sensitive?
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
1/375
p.24
Epidemiology

How is Haemophilus influenzae primarily spread?

Through contact and aerosols.

p.37
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What organism is the most likely cause of a 12-year-old male's condition with enlarged tonsils, malaise, fever, and sore throat, showing gram-positive cocci that are catalase negative, beta hemolytic, and bacitracin sensitive?

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

p.31
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

Which treatment is recommended for Legionnaires’ disease?

Erythromycin.

p.22
Neisseria and Associated Infections

Which of the following is a characteristic of Neisseria meningitidis infection?

Spreads through respiratory droplets.

p.16
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is Actinomycosis characterized by?

Chronic disease characterized by abscess and inflammation.

p.16
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

What is a major component of dental plaque associated with A. naeslundii?

Common in the oral cavity and may contribute to dental caries and periodontal disease.

p.29
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is crucial to prevent Legionella infection?

Hygiene maintenance.

p.18
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

How long is the recommended therapy for Actinomyces infections?

6 months or longer.

p.13
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What is passive immunization in the context of Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Antitoxin for non-immune exposed individuals.

p.40
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What does the letter 'E' represent in the sequence?

4.

p.3
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

What is the role of normal flora in the human body?

Normal flora protect against harmful microbes; disruption may lead to opportunistic infections like Clostridium difficile colitis.

p.38
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What infection is Streptococcus pneumoniae primarily associated with?

Most common cases of pneumonia.

p.29
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

Where is Legionella pneumophila naturally found?

In freshwater environments like lakes and streams.

p.14
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

What is Mycoplasma salivarium part of?

Commensal oral flora.

p.29
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What can Legionella form in stagnant water lines?

Biofilms.

p.26
Mycobacteria and Associated Infections

How does Mycobacterium tuberculosis transmit?

Through inhalation of droplets affecting alveolar macrophages in the lungs.

p.13
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What are the general characteristics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Smallest self-replicating organisms, no cell wall, highly pleomorphic, and cell membrane rich in sterols.

p.28
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

How are Mycobacterium Other Than Tuberculosis (MOTT) generally treated?

They are generally sensitive to normal anti-tuberculous drugs.

p.4
Koch's Postulates and Infection Cycle

Can viruses be grown in pure culture and do they cause disease in experimental hosts?

Viruses can be grown in pure culture but do not cause disease in experimental hosts.

p.37
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

Which body surface is NOT occupied by normal flora?

E. Blood system.

p.3
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

How do facultative and obligate pathogens differ in their reproduction?

Facultative pathogens can reproduce inside or outside a host, while obligate pathogens can only reproduce inside a host.

p.40
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What does the letter 'C' represent in the sequence?

6.

p.40
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What does the letter 'D' represent in the sequence?

8.

p.16
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are the types of Actinomycosis?

Cervicofacial, thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic.

p.25
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What condition is caused by H. aegyptius?

Acute conjunctivitis.

p.16
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are alternative treatments for Actinomycosis?

Erythromycin and clindamycin.

p.36
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

Which Rickettsia species is responsible for causing Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

C) Rickettsia rickettsii.

p.26
Mycobacteria and Associated Infections

What are the symptoms of Tuberculosis?

Persistent cough, weight loss, night sweats, fever, fatigue, loss of appetite.

p.18
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What is the most common type of actinomycosis?

c) Cervicofacial.

p.14
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What encodes the diphtheria toxin?

Corynephage β.

p.14
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

c) Spore-forming.

p.8
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is the characteristic of gamma (γ) hemolytic streptococci?

Non-hemolytic (e.g., some Group D streptococci like S. bovis).

p.31
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the primary method of diagnosing Legionella pneumophila infections?

Immunofluorescence assay.

p.10
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is the recommended treatment for infections caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?

Penicillin.

p.40
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What does the letter 'A' represent in the sequence?

10.

p.16
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What methods are used for laboratory diagnosis of Actinomycosis?

Microscopic examination, culture using semi-selective media, and molecular analysis.

p.36
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What is the primary characteristic of Chlamydia that classifies it as an 'energy parasite'?

B) It relies on host cells for ATP and nutrients.

p.19
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is the shape of Neisseria bacteria?

Kidney bean-shaped.

p.19
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What type of bacteria is Neisseria?

Gram-negative diplococci.

p.14
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What is a unique characteristic of Mycoplasma?

Lack of cell wall and pleomorphism.

p.18
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating Actinomyces infections?

b) Penicillin.

p.6
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

Who are considered high-risk populations for Staphylococcus aureus infections?

Immunocompromised individuals and drug abusers.

p.21
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What enzyme does IgA protease cleave?

IgA.

p.15
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

How does Mycoplasma pneumoniae attach to respiratory epithelial cells?

Using the P1 adhesin.

p.24
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What type of bacteria is Haemophilus influenzae?

Gram-negative, small pleomorphic coccobacillus.

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the portal of entry for Legionnaires’ disease?

Respiratory tract.

p.6
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What are the laboratory diagnosis characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus?

Catalase positive, coagulase positive, yellow or gold colonies on blood agar.

p.6
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What agar is used to grow Staphylococcus aureus and what does it ferment?

Mannitol Salt Agar; it ferments mannitol, turning the medium yellow.

p.21
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What types of vaccines are available for meningococcal infections?

Types A, B, C, W-135, and Y.

p.10
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What condition is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and results in a red 'sandpaper-like' rash and strawberry tongue?

Scarlet Fever.

p.31
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is a key preventive measure against the spread of Legionella in water systems?

Regular chlorination of water.

p.7
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

Which laboratory test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococci species?

Coagulase test.

p.38
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

Which organism is usually found as diplococci?

Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

p.26
Mycobacteria and Associated Infections

What are the major diseases caused by Mycobacteria?

Tuberculosis and Leprosy.

p.25
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

Which diseases are associated with H. parainfluenzae?

Pneumonia and endocarditis.

p.16
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What are the general characteristics of Nocardia?

Gram-positive, filamentous bacilli, strictly aerobic, and catalase positive.

p.18
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Actinomyces?

c) Strictly aerobic.

p.25
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What type of agar is used for culturing Haemophilus influenzae in the laboratory?

C) Chocolate agar.

p.13
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What are the symptoms of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection after 2-3 weeks?

Tracheobronchitis, fever, chills, malaise, sore throat, headache, cough.

p.4
Koch's Postulates and Infection Cycle

What are Koch’s Postulates designed for?

Koch’s Postulates are specifically designed for bacteria, not viruses.

p.13
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

How is Mycoplasma pneumoniae primarily spread?

Via respiratory droplets.

p.28
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

Which staining technique is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

B) Ziehl–Neelsen stain.

p.7
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What enzyme is produced by Staphylococcus aureus that breaks down hyaluronic acid?

Hyaluronidase.

p.3
Koch's Postulates and Infection Cycle

Why might some microorganisms, like viruses, not fulfill Koch’s Postulates?

Some microorganisms cannot be isolated in culture, and viruses require a host to replicate.

p.29
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What is the morphology of Legionella pneumophila?

Gram-negative, aerobic, rod-shaped, pleomorphic, flagellated, and non-spore-forming.

p.29
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

In which systems is Legionella commonly found?

Water systems like showerheads, air cooling systems, hot tubs, and plumbing systems.

p.14
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

Where is Mycoplasma salivarium commonly found?

In dental plaque and gingival crevices.

p.14
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

In which population is Mycoplasma salivarium more prevalent?

People with periodontal diseases.

p.14
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

How is Mycoplasma salivarium transmitted?

Through dental aerosols and respiratory droplets.

p.13
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What is the size range of Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

0.1-0.2 μm width and 1-2 μm length.

p.28
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What is the primary mode of transmission for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

C) Inhalation of droplets.

p.28
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

Which symptom is characteristic of tuberculosis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

B) Persistent cough with phlegm.

p.15
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What is a characteristic of Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Lack of a cell wall.

p.11
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What are the general characteristics of Corynebacterium?

Gram-positive, catalase-positive, non-spore forming, non-motile rods; pleomorphic with clubbed ends; aerobic or facultatively anaerobic; slow growth.

p.15
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What is the oxygen requirement for Actinomyces?

Facultative or strictly anaerobic.

p.11
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What disease does C. diphtheriae cause?

Diphtheria, by releasing a toxin.

p.11
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What type of media does C. diphtheriae grow on?

Blood agar and trypticase soy agar; selective media includes Tinsdale agar.

p.15
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What antibiotic are Actinomyces susceptible to?

Penicillin.

p.6
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is a major virulence factor of Staphylococcus epidermidis?

Polysaccharide slime.

p.27
Mycobacterium Bovis

What are the methods for culture and diagnosis of tuberculosis?

Slow culture growth on egg-based, agar-based, and liquid media; Ziehl-Neelsen stain for microscopy; PCR for nucleic acid amplification.

p.27
Mycobacterium Bovis

What is the standard therapy duration for tuberculosis?

Long-term combination therapy for 6–9 months.

p.22
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is the primary difference between N. gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis in the CTA test?

N. gonorrhoeae is maltose negative, N. meningitidis is maltose positive.

p.40
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What does the letter 'A' represent in the sequence?

5.

p.10
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is a common infection caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Meningitis.

p.40
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What does the letter 'E' represent in the sequence?

9.

p.38
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

Immunity against Haemophilus influenzae infection depends on the development of which antibody?

Antibody against capsular polysaccharide.

p.16
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the drug of choice for treating Actinomycosis?

Penicillin.

p.36
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

Which form of Chlamydia is the infectious, extracellular form?

C) Elementary Body.

p.18
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the prognosis for immunocompromised patients with disseminated Actinomyces disease?

Poor prognosis.

p.25
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

Which Haemophilus influenzae type is most commonly associated with severe childhood diseases?

B) Type b.

p.19
Neisseria and Associated Infections

On what type of agar is Neisseria cultivated?

Blood agar or chocolate agar.

p.18
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

Nocardia species are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

c) Strictly anaerobic.

p.13
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What antibiotics are effective against Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Tetracycline or erythromycin; penicillin is ineffective.

p.4
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

Which of the following is NOT a common portal of entry for pathogens?

Muscular tissue.

p.4
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is the morphology of Staphylococcus aureus?

Gram-positive cocci in grape-like clusters.

p.12
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What are the two subunits of Diphtheria Toxin?

A and B subunits.

p.21
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is one method for diagnosing meningococcal infections?

Microscopic examination of CSF.

p.24
Virulence Factors and Pathogenic Mechanisms

What virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae blocks phagocytosis?

Capsule.

p.8
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

How is Streptococcus agalactiae characterized in laboratory diagnosis?

Bacitracin resistant.

p.11
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What is the diphtheria toxin?

An exotoxin secreted by C. diphtheriae that inhibits protein synthesis in host cells.

p.17
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

How can Nocardia survive within the human body?

By living inside macrophages.

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the mortality rate for general cases of Legionnaires’ disease?

1 in 10.

p.35
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What disease is caused by C. psittaci?

Psittacosis, with respiratory symptoms.

p.24
Laboratory Diagnosis

What laboratory methods are used for diagnosing Haemophilus influenzae?

Microscopic observation, culture on chocolate agar, latex particle agglutination, PCR.

p.37
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What organism is MOST LIKELY involved in a root canal infection with gram-positive cocci in clusters that are catalase positive, coagulase positive, and beta hemolytic?

A. Staphylococcus aureus.

p.22
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What percentage of women infected with N. gonorrhoeae are asymptomatic?

30%.

p.7
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

Which infection is most commonly associated with Staphylococcus saprophyticus?

Urinary tract infections (UTIs).

p.29
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What is the primary preventative measure against Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection?

BCG vaccination.

p.29
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

How is Legionella pneumophila primarily spread?

Through contaminated aerosols.

p.18
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the treatment of choice for Actinomyces infections?

Sulfonamides, specifically trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole.

p.26
Mycobacteria and Associated Infections

What is the morphology of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Weakly gram-positive, rod-shaped, non-motile, non-spore forming, aerobic.

p.25
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the primary method of transmission for Bordetella pertussis?

B) Respiratory droplets.

p.36
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What is the drug of choice for treating Rickettsial infections?

B) Doxycycline.

p.13
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

How does Mycoplasma pneumoniae evade the immune system?

By changing surface antigens and fusing with host cells.

p.8
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What type of hemolysis is associated with S. pneumoniae and viridans streptococci?

Alpha (α) hemolytic: Partial hemolysis.

p.28
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What is a major risk factor for progressing to active tuberculosis?

B) HIV infection.

p.19
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is the carbohydrate utilization result for N. gonorrhoeae?

Glucose positive, maltose negative.

p.8
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What are the virulence factors of Streptococcus pyogenes?

M protein, F protein, pyrogenic toxins, hemolysins, and enzymes like streptokinase.

p.24
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What are the growth requirements for Haemophilus influenzae?

Fastidious growth requirements (X and V factors).

p.12
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What is the role of the B subunit in Diphtheria Toxin?

It binds to the host cell receptor.

p.21
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is the emergency treatment for suspected meningococcal infection?

Antibiotics before diagnosis.

p.21
Neisseria and Associated Infections

Which antibiotics are used for confirmed cases of meningococcal infection?

Penicillin plus ceftriaxone.

p.12
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What areas of the body does Diphtheria primarily affect?

The upper respiratory tract, including the oropharynx and nasopharynx.

p.11
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

How is diphtheria toxin production regulated?

By the diphtheria toxin repressor (DtxR), which responds to environmental iron concentrations.

p.11
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What happens to toxin production in high iron conditions?

High iron suppresses toxin production.

p.6
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus breaks down blood clots?

Coagulase.

p.3
Koch's Postulates and Infection Cycle

What are the steps in the Genitourinary tract Infection Cycle?

Adhesion, entry, replication, spread.

p.7
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is the main cause of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) in Staphylococcus aureus infections?

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1).

p.31
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What are the general characteristics of Treponema pallidum?

Gram-negative, corkscrew-shaped, highly motile, strictly extracellular pathogen.

p.16
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What forms as a result of chronic suppuration in Actinomycosis?

Granuloma formation and fibrotic 'walling off'.

p.18
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What type of media is used for culturing Actinomyces?

Blood agar and SDA (Sabouraud Dextrose Agar).

p.19
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is the treatment of choice for Nocardia infections?

Sulfonamides.

p.25
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

Which of the following is NOT a virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis?

C) Lipooligosaccharide.

p.36
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What is the primary mode of transmission for Rickettsial diseases to humans?

C) Arthropod vectors.

p.26
Mycobacteria and Associated Infections

What is a characteristic feature of Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection?

Formation of granulomas with a necrotic core and surrounding immune cells.

p.19
Neisseria and Associated Infections

Which Neisseria species is pathogenic and causes gonorrhea?

Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

p.19
Neisseria and Associated Infections

Which Neisseria species is associated with meningitis?

Neisseria meningitidis.

p.19
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What test is used for differentiating Neisseria species based on carbohydrate utilization?

CTA (Cystine Tryptic Agar) test.

p.13
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What type of pneumonia does Mycoplasma pneumoniae cause?

Atypical pneumonia.

p.17
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What makes Nocardia acid-fast?

The presence of mycolic acid in its cell wall.

p.24
Virulence Factors and Pathogenic Mechanisms

What is the most pathogenic type of Haemophilus influenzae?

Type b.

p.12
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What does the A subunit of Diphtheria Toxin do?

It has catalytic activity and transfers ADP-ribose from NAD to elongation factor 2 (EF-2).

p.24
Virulence Factors and Pathogenic Mechanisms

What is the role of LOS (Lipooligosaccharide) in Haemophilus influenzae?

It acts as an endotoxin, toxic to epithelial cells.

p.34
Chlamydia and Rickettsia

What assay uses antibodies tagged with fluorescent dyes?

Immunofluorescence assay.

p.12
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What does the membrane formed by Diphtheria consist of?

Bacteria, fibrin, dead cells, and blood cells.

p.12
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What are common symptoms of Diphtheria?

Sore throat, fever, swollen lymph nodes, and weakness.

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What type of agar is used to culture Legionella?

Cysteine–charcoal–yeast extract agar under 5% CO2.

p.27
Mycobacterium Bovis

How is Mycobacterium bovis transmitted to humans?

Via contaminated milk.

p.23
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

On which type of agar can the whooping cough bacterium be cultured?

Blood agar or charcoal blood agar.

p.23
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the primary virulence factor of the whooping cough bacterium?

Adhesions such as filamentous hemagglutinin (FHA), fimbriae, and pertactin.

p.23
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What effect does pertussis toxin have on host cells?

ADP-ribosylation affects host cell signaling.

p.17
Koch's Postulates and Infection Cycle

How does Nocardia spread to the skin and brain?

Via the bloodstream.

p.33
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What increases the risk of HIV in individuals with syphilis?

Genital ulcers.

p.22
Neisseria and Associated Infections

Which of the following is NOT a virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

Capsule.

p.10
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

Which laboratory test is used to differentiate Streptococcus agalactiae from other streptococci?

CAMP test.

p.40
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What does the letter 'A' represent in the sequence?

7.

p.38
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

Which characteristic is NOT correct about Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

Gram negative.

p.25
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What disease does H. ducreyi cause?

Chancroid.

p.26
Mycobacteria and Associated Infections

What is the causative agent of Tuberculosis?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium bovis, Mycobacterium africanum.

p.28
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What is required due to drug resistance in treating Mycobacterium Other Than Tuberculosis (MOTT)?

Combination therapy.

p.28
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

Which species are included in Mycobacterium Other Than Tuberculosis (MOTT)?

M. avium, M. intracellulare, M. kansasii, M. marinum, M. fortuitum.

p.19
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What are the growth requirements for Neisseria?

Aerobic with increased CO2 concentration (5%).

p.26
Mycobacteria and Associated Infections

What are the virulence factors of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Surface-exposed lipids (PDIM, PGL).

p.13
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What is the primary method for laboratory diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Culture from sputum and throat swabs, cold agglutination test, and PCR.

p.4
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

Which zoonotic disease is spread through contact with infected animal fluids?

Ebola; it is spread through contact with infected animal fluids and human-to-human transmission.

p.8
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is the morphology of Streptococci?

Gram-positive cocci arranged in chains or diplococci.

p.6
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is used to treat methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

Vancomycin.

p.6
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

How long is the treatment for endocarditis caused by Staphylococcus aureus?

4-6 weeks.

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What serious condition does Legionella cause?

Legionnaires’ disease (legionellosis).

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are common symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease?

Lung infection, cough, shortness of breath, fever, muscle aches, headaches.

p.24
Pathogenesis

What are the potential diseases caused by Haemophilus influenzae?

Pneumonia, otitis media, and meningitis.

p.34
Chlamydia and Rickettsia

What test is used for screening syphilis?

Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) Test.

p.34
Chlamydia and Rickettsia

What is the purpose of ELISA in the context of viral infections?

For detecting viral proteins.

p.17
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

Name three medically important species of Nocardia.

N. asteroides, N. brasiliensis, N. caviae.

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

How long can Legionella take to grow in culture?

Up to 3 weeks.

p.35
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What is the treatment for Chlamydia infections?

Azithromycin or doxycycline.

p.27
Mycobacterium leprae

What is a key characteristic of Mycobacterium leprae?

It causes leprosy and is transmitted through prolonged contact.

p.35
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

How are Rickettsia transmitted to humans?

By arthropod vectors (fleas, lice, mites, ticks).

p.23
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the role of adenylate cyclase toxin in whooping cough?

Increases cAMP levels.

p.34
Chlamydia and Rickettsia

Which species of Chlamydia causes respiratory infections?

C. pneumoniae.

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with Legionnaires’ disease?

B) Shortness of breath.

p.39
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What is the most common way syphilis is spread?

Through contact with an infected person’s sore during sexual activity.

p.33
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What are alternatives to Penicillin G for treating syphilis?

Tetracycline and doxycycline.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is the function of beta-lactamase in Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

It hydrolyzes beta-lactam antibiotics.

p.28
Mycoplasma and Atypical Pneumonia

What is the pathogenicity of Mycobacterium Other Than Tuberculosis (MOTT)?

Low pathogenicity but can cause pulmonary infections, especially in immunocompromised individuals.

p.14
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What is the mechanism of action of the diphtheria toxin?

It inhibits protein synthesis.

p.25
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

Which antibiotic is recommended for the treatment of Bordetella pertussis during the early stage of infection?

A) Tetracycline.

p.6
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is a key control measure to prevent Staphylococcus aureus infections?

Cleanliness, hand washing, and aseptic handling of wounds.

p.21
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What are the symptoms of meningitis?

Fever, headache, stiff neck, increased cranial pressure.

p.21
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is the incidence of meningitis in children under 1 year old?

10-100 children per 100,000.

p.8
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is a common clinical manifestation of Streptococcus pyogenes?

Pharyngitis, impetigo, scarlet fever, necrotizing fasciitis, rheumatic fever, and glomerulonephritis.

p.4
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

Is Staphylococcus aureus motile or non-motile?

Non-motile and non-spore forming.

p.4
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What type of colonies does Staphylococcus aureus produce on blood agar plates?

Beta-hemolytic colonies.

p.12
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What is the effect of Diphtheria Toxin on protein synthesis?

It inhibits protein synthesis, leading to cell death.

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

Who is at increased risk for Legionnaires’ disease?

People 50 years or older, smokers, those with chronic lung disease, weakened immune systems, and underlying illnesses.

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are potential complications of Legionnaires’ disease?

Lung failure and death.

p.6
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

Which morphology best describes Staphylococcus aureus?

Gram-positive cocci arranged in grape-like clusters.

p.23
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What type of bacterium causes whooping cough?

Gram-negative coccobacillus.

p.21
Neisseria and Associated Infections

Which Neisseria species has a vaccine available?

N. meningitidis.

p.32
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are the stages of syphilis?

Primary stage (chancre) and secondary stage (rashes, fever, etc.).

p.32
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are common symptoms of the secondary stage of syphilis?

Rashes, fever, swollen lymph nodes, sore throat, hair loss, headaches, muscle aches, weight loss, fatigue.

p.34
Chlamydia and Rickettsia

What species of Chlamydia affects humans and causes eye and genital infections?

C. trachomatis.

p.23
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What does tracheal cytotoxin do?

Kills ciliated respiratory epithelial cells.

p.32
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are some virulence determinants of the syphilis-causing organism?

Outer membrane proteins, hyaluronidase, fibronectin.

p.32
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the relationship between syphilis and HIV?

Syphilis can increase susceptibility to HIV infection.

p.17
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

How is Nocardia diagnosed in the laboratory?

Microscopic examination of specimens.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is an endemic disease?

A disease that is constantly present in a population.

p.33
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is a characteristic dental abnormality associated with congenital syphilis?

Hutchinson’s incisors.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are zoonotic diseases?

Diseases that spread from animals to humans.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

How is Neisseria meningitidis spread?

Through respiratory droplets.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What are carbuncles?

Carbuncles are deep pus formations from clusters of furuncles.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is the morphology of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Gram-positive, alpha-hemolytic, aerotolerant anaerobic.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What does a positive CAMP test indicate for Group B streptococci?

Positive for *S. agalactiae*.

p.8
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

Which streptococci are classified as beta (β) hemolytic?

S. pyogenes and S. agalactiae.

p.6
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What percentage of Staphylococcus aureus strains are resistant to penicillin?

90%.

p.15
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What type of bacteria is Actinomyces?

Gram-positive, filamentous bacilli.

p.4
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What are the catalase and coagulase characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus?

Catalase positive and coagulase positive.

p.15
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

Are Actinomyces fastidious or easy to grow?

Fastidious and slow-growing.

p.15
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What type of organisms are Actinomyces classified as?

True bacteria, not fungi.

p.11
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What is the role of potassium tellurite in Tinsdale agar?

It inhibits gram-negative bacteria and most normal upper respiratory flora.

p.17
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

What type of pathogen is Nocardia?

Opportunistic pathogen.

p.6
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is Staphylococcus saprophyticus commonly associated with?

Urinary tract infections (UTIs), particularly in young sexually active females.

p.35
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What respiratory disease is associated with C. pneumoniae?

Respiratory diseases.

p.32
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What type of parasite is responsible for syphilis?

Obligate human parasite, fastidious, and difficult to culture in vitro.

p.34
Chlamydia and Rickettsia

What is the primary treatment for syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum?

Penicillin G.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are microbes?

Tiny living organisms found everywhere.

p.17
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are the symptoms of lung infections caused by Nocardia?

Cough, shortness of breath, fever.

p.17
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What characterizes lung infections caused by Nocardia?

Lung abscesses.

p.35
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What is the drug of choice for treating Rickettsial infections?

Doxycycline.

p.35
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What symptoms are associated with Rickettsial infections?

Maculopapular rash, edema, hemorrhage.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are examples of viral infections?

Flu, HIV, chickenpox.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What types of infections can bacteria cause?

Infections such as tuberculosis and strep throat.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

When do fungi cause infections?

When they overgrow, such as in yeast infections and athlete’s foot.

p.39
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

How does the reticulate body of Chlamydia psittaci replicate?

By binary fission, forming an inclusion granule.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What do leukocidins do?

Leukocidins kill immune cells like PMNs and macrophages.

p.39
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What is the motility characteristic of Rickettsiae?

They are non-motile.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is a characteristic of the LOS in Neisseria meningitidis?

It is highly endotoxic.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What are the symptoms of pneumococcal pneumonia?

Fever, cough, chest pain.

p.6
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What type of drugs are often required to treat Staphylococcus aureus infections?

β-lactamase-resistant drugs (methicillin, nafcillin).

p.11
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

Where can Corynebacterium be found?

In soil, water, plants, and food products.

p.17
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

On which types of agar does Nocardia grow?

Blood agar and Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA).

p.17
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

Where is Nocardia commonly found?

Ubiquitous in soil and water.

p.17
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

In which areas of the human body can Nocardia be present?

Healthy gingiva and periodontal pockets.

p.27
Mycobacterium Bovis

What significantly increases the risk of active tuberculosis?

HIV infection.

p.35
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What are the diseases caused by C. trachomatis?

Trachoma, inclusion conjunctivitis, genital infections, LGV.

p.21
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is the primary infection site for N. gonorrhoeae?

Genitourinary tract.

p.21
Neisseria and Associated Infections

Which Neisseria species has a capsule?

N. meningitidis.

p.12
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

How is Diphtheria diagnosed in the laboratory?

By culture on tellurite agar and Elek's immunodiffusion test.

p.11
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What is lysogenic conversion?

Integration of phage genome into bacterial genome, which can convert non-pathogenic bacteria to pathogenic.

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the primary drug of choice for treating Legionnaires’ disease?

Erythromycin.

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is a key prevention strategy for Legionnaires’ disease?

Reducing Legionella growth and spread in water systems.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What sugars can N. meningitidis ferment?

Glucose and maltose.

p.27
Mycobacterium leprae

What is the culture method for Mycobacterium leprae?

No in vitro culture method; it can grow in mouse footpads.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the difference between facultative and obligate pathogens?

Facultative pathogens can live outside or inside a host, while obligate pathogens can only survive inside a host.

p.17
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What brain condition can Nocardia cause?

Encephalitis.

p.34
Chlamydia and Rickettsia

Which species of Chlamydia affects ruminants?

C. pecorum.

p.39
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

During which stages is syphilis contagious?

During the primary and secondary stages.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are examples of parasitic infections?

Malaria and giardiasis.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What are enterotoxins and what do they cause?

Enterotoxins cause food poisoning, diarrhea, and vomiting.

p.2
Koch's Postulates and Infection Cycle

What are Koch's Postulates?

Criteria to establish a microbe as the cause of a disease.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What condition does exfoliatin lead to?

Exfoliatin leads to scalded skin syndrome.

p.2
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are some routes of infections?

Airborne, touch, bodily fluids, ingestion, and animal bites.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What type of infections can pneumonia caused by Staphylococcus aureus lead to?

Lung infections with abscesses.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

How does *S. pyogenes* respond to bacitracin?

*S. pyogenes* is bacitracin-sensitive; *S. agalactiae* is resistant.

p.21
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What are the symptoms of meningococcemia?

Upper respiratory infection, fever, skin rash, shock.

p.8
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is the drug of choice for treating Streptococcus infections?

Penicillin; erythromycin is used for penicillin allergies.

p.8
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is a common cause of neonatal infections associated with Streptococcus agalactiae?

Sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis.

p.34
Chlamydia and Rickettsia

What type of microscopy is used for observing live specimens with low light?

Dark-field microscopy.

p.15
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

Where are Actinomyces primarily found?

In soil.

p.15
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

What role do Actinomyces play in human infections?

They cause infections as endogenous opportunists.

p.17
Koch's Postulates and Infection Cycle

What are the main transmission routes for Nocardia?

Inhalation and traumatic inoculation into the skin.

p.27
Mycobacterium Bovis

What is the BCG vaccination used for?

Prevention of tuberculosis.

p.23
Types of Microbes and Pathogens

What is the oxygen requirement for the bacterium that causes whooping cough?

Strict aerobe.

p.21
Neisseria and Associated Infections

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Neisseria species? a) Gram-negative b) Diplococci c) Motile d) Catalase positive

c) Motile.

p.34
Chlamydia and Rickettsia

What do Chlamydia depend on for ATP and nutrients?

Host cells.

p.27
Mycobacterium leprae

What are the two forms of leprosy caused by Mycobacterium leprae?

Lepromatous and tuberculoid leprosy.

p.34
Chlamydia and Rickettsia

What is the life cycle of Chlamydia characterized by?

Two forms: Elementary Body (infective) and Reticulate Body (replicative).

p.17
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What skin conditions can Nocardia cause?

Cellulitis and subcutaneous abscesses.

p.2
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

What is normal flora?

Microorganisms that naturally reside in the body without causing harm.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What does IgA protease do in the pathogenicity of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

It cleaves IgA.

p.2
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

Why is normal flora important?

It prevents colonization by harmful microbes.

p.2
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

What can disruption of normal flora lead to?

Diseases like Clostridium difficile infection.

p.2
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

What is the carrier state?

Individuals who harbor pathogens but do not show symptoms.

p.39
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What does the elementary body of Chlamydia psittaci reorganize into?

A reticulate body.

p.33
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is a method NOT used for laboratory diagnosis of Treponema pallidum?

Contaminated water testing.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is another name for Neisseria meningitidis?

Meningococcus.

p.2
Koch's Postulates and Infection Cycle

What is the fourth criterion of Koch's Postulates?

The microbe must be re-isolated from the infected host.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is osteomyelitis?

Osteomyelitis is a bone infection, common in children.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

Which species of Viridans Streptococci is a major pathogen in dental caries?

*S. mutans*.

p.15
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

Which species of Actinomyces is associated with human infections?

A. israelii and A. naeslundii.

p.11
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What are the two life cycles of bacteriophages?

Lytic cycle (used by virulent phages) and lysogenic cycle (used by temperate phages).

p.17
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the most common form of Nocardiosis?

Lung infections.

p.27
Mycobacterium Bovis

What condition does Mycobacterium bovis cause?

Scrofuloderma with enlarged cervical lymph nodes.

p.35
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What are the general characteristics of Rickettsia?

Obligate intracellular parasites, gram-negative, pleomorphic, aerobic, non-motile.

p.2
Opportunistic Infections

What are opportunistic infections?

Infections that occur in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as HIV patients and transplant recipients.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are pathogens?

Microbes that cause disease when the immune system is weakened or when they enter sterile body areas.

p.32
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is congenital syphilis?

Syphilis transmitted from mother to fetus, causing tooth malformations.

p.34
Chlamydia and Rickettsia

What species of Chlamydia causes psittacosis in birds and humans?

C. psittaci.

p.17
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are some virulence factors of Nocardia?

Catalase, superoxide dismutase, cord factor.

p.32
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are the modes of transmission for syphilis?

Unprotected sexual activity, congenital transmission, blood transfusion, sharing needles.

p.23
Prevention and Treatment

What is the prevention method for whooping cough?

DPT vaccine.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

Why are lipases important in skin infections?

Lipases break down lipids, which is crucial for skin infections.

p.2
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

What are some examples of asymptomatic infections?

Gonorrhea and COVID-19.

p.2
Koch's Postulates and Infection Cycle

What is the first criterion of Koch's Postulates?

The microbe must be found in diseased individuals.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What are the characteristics of impetigo?

Impetigo presents with vesicles containing clear/yellowish fluid and is highly contagious.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is a localized pus-filled infection called?

An abscess.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is Otitis Media?

Middle ear infection, common in children.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is a major virulence factor of *Streptococcus pyogenes* that helps it evade the immune system?

B) M protein.

p.24
Clinical Manifestations

What are common clinical manifestations of Haemophilus influenzae infections?

Respiratory infections, epiglottitis, otitis media.

p.32
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

How is syphilis primarily transmitted?

Through sexual contact with an infected sore.

p.12
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What is the primary method of prevention for Diphtheria?

Active immunization with boosters every 10 years.

p.12
Corynebacterium and Diphtheria Toxin

What type of immunity is correlated with protection against Diphtheria?

Humoral immunity, specifically neutralizing antibodies (antitoxin).

p.32
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What complications can arise from untreated syphilis?

Dermatological, venereal, cardiovascular, neurological complications.

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

Is there a vaccine available for Legionnaires’ disease?

No, there are no vaccines available.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is a key pathogenicity mechanism of Neisseria gonorrhoeae related to its surface proteins?

Pilin undergoes antigenic variation.

p.27
Mycobacterium leprae

What antileprotic drugs are used for treating leprosy?

Dapsone, rifampicin, clofazimine.

p.23
Epidemiology

How is whooping cough primarily spread?

Via respiratory droplets.

p.23
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What are the clinical manifestations during the catarrhal stage of pertussis?

Rhinorrhea and high communicability.

p.23
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What characterizes the paroxysmal coughing stage of pertussis?

Characteristic whoop and elevated WBC.

p.33
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

Which stage of syphilis is characterized by the presence of a chancre?

Primary Stage.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What are common clinical symptoms of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in males?

Urethral infection, yellow discharge, dysuria, swollen testicles.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is the treatment for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections?

Penicillin or ceftriaxone.

p.2
Koch's Postulates and Infection Cycle

What is the third criterion of Koch's Postulates?

The microbe introduced to a healthy host must cause disease.

p.2
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What are the portals of entry for infections?

Skin, respiratory tract, and gastrointestinal tract.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is the epidemiology of Staphylococcus aureus?

It is a common normal flora of skin and nasal passages and a major cause of nosocomial infections.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is the main characteristic of meningitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Inflammation of membranes around the brain/spinal cord.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is the Quellung reaction used for?

To identify *S. pneumoniae* via capsular swelling.

p.35
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What laboratory methods are used for diagnosing Chlamydia infections?

Giemsa staining, immunofluorescence, ELISA, NAAT (PCR).

p.24
Immunity and Prevention

What type of vaccine is used for prevention against Haemophilus influenzae?

Hib conjugate vaccines for children.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is the microbiome?

A collection of microorganisms (bacteria, fungi, viruses) in specific environments.

p.32
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is neurosyphilis?

A form of syphilis that affects the brain and nervous system.

p.30
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What type of environment is Legionella naturally found in?

B) Freshwater environments.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is the role of LOS (Lipooligosaccharide) in Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

It is toxic for ciliated cells.

p.2
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

Where are key locations for normal flora in the body?

Skin, respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, and urogenital system.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

How does Neisseria gonorrhoeae acquire iron?

Through transferrin/lactoferrin binding proteins.

p.39
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

Can syphilis infect only the genital organs?

No, this statement is incorrect.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is a significant epidemiological fact about Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

It is a common STD primarily affecting ages 15-29.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What defines an epidemic?

An outbreak that occurs more frequently than usual.

p.39
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What happens to reticulate bodies in the life cycle of Chlamydia psittaci?

They are reorganized into elementary bodies.

p.39
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What is the Gram stain classification of Rickettsiae?

They are not Gram-positive; this statement is incorrect.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What are the most common serotypes of Neisseria meningitidis?

Serotypes A and B.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is the laboratory diagnosis for streptococci based on catalase test?

Catalase test is negative for streptococci (positive for staphylococci).

p.34
Chlamydia and Rickettsia

What are the general characteristics of Chlamydia?

Gram-negative, coccoid, non-motile, aerobic, obligate intracellular parasites.

p.24
Treatment

What antibiotics are used for treating Haemophilus influenzae infections?

Ampicillin or cephalosporins, depending on β-lactamase production; tetracycline for non-typable infections.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What can cause microbial infections?

Bacteria, fungi, viruses, and parasites.

p.2
Opportunistic Infections

What are some examples of opportunistic infections?

Pneumonia and tuberculosis.

p.33
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

How may syphilis progress in HIV-positive individuals?

Faster than in HIV-negative individuals.

p.33
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is the primary treatment for syphilis?

Penicillin G.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What enzyme does coagulase produce and what is its significance?

Coagulase causes plasma clotting, which is important for abscess formation.

p.33
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is one method used for laboratory diagnosis of Treponema pallidum?

Dark-field microscopy.

p.33
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is the primary mode of transmission for Treponema pallidum?

Sexual contact with an infected person.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What percentage of men experience painful urethritis due to Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

90%.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is the effect of hemolysins on red blood cells?

Hemolysins cause lysis of red blood cells.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What syndrome is caused by Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1)?

Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS), which leads to excessive cytokine release.

p.39
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What type of parasite are Rickettsiae?

Obligate intracellular parasites.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What are the symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)?

High fever, low blood pressure, and organ failure.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is the treatment for most strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Most strains are susceptible to penicillin; vancomycin is used for resistant strains.

p.39
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

How does Treponema pallidum enter the body?

Through minor cuts in the skin or mucous membranes.

p.35
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What diseases are caused by R. prowazekii?

Epidemic typhus, Brill-Zinsser disease.

p.35
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

What is the alternative treatment for Rickettsial infections?

Chloramphenicol.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What role does hyaluronidase play in bacterial infections?

Hyaluronidase facilitates bacterial spread by breaking down hyaluronic acid.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is the function of staphylokinase?

Staphylokinase breaks down blood clots.

p.2
Normal Flora and Opportunistic Infections

What are the types of carriers?

Incubating carriers and convalescent carriers.

p.1
Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis

What is a pandemic?

The global spread of an infection.

p.39
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

How are elementary bodies released from the host cell in Chlamydia psittaci?

By exocytosis.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is the role of the capsule in Neisseria meningitidis?

It is anti-phagocytic.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What are the symptoms of food poisoning caused by enterotoxins?

Symptoms appear within 1-6 hours.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What vaccines are available for preventing infections caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Vaccines for children under 2 and adults over 65.

p.39
Chlamydia and Rickettsia Pathogenesis

How does the elementary body of Chlamydia psittaci enter the host cell?

By endocytosis.

p.20
Neisseria and Associated Infections

What is a common diagnostic method for Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

Gram staining of urethral/endocervical exudates.

p.2
Koch's Postulates and Infection Cycle

What is the second criterion of Koch's Postulates?

The microbe must be isolated and cultured.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What is a furuncle?

A furuncle is an infection of hair follicles.

p.5
Staphylococcus Characteristics and Infections

What does infective endocarditis damage?

It damages heart valves.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What does a positive CAMP test indicate?

Enhances hemolysis by *Staphylococcus aureus*.

p.9
Streptococcus Classification and Clinical Manifestations

What is the association of *S. sanguinis*?

Associated with infective endocarditis.

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