What is the major function of the spleen? A) Produce red blood cells B) Remove aging and damaged blood cells C) Filter lymph D) Produce antibodies E) Store iron
B) Remove aging and damaged blood cells Explanation: The spleen's major function is to remove aging and damaged blood cells or particles from the circulation and to initiate adaptive immune responses to blood-borne antigens.
What is the function of MHC Class II molecules? A) To present antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic T cells B) To present antigens to CD4+ helper T cells C) To directly kill pathogens D) To produce antibodies E) To secrete cytokines
B) To present antigens to CD4+ helper T cells Explanation: MHC Class II molecules present antigens to CD4+ helper T cells, which is crucial for initiating the helper T cell response.
1/106
p.6
Adaptive Immunity Overview

What is the major function of the spleen?
A) Produce red blood cells
B) Remove aging and damaged blood cells
C) Filter lymph
D) Produce antibodies
E) Store iron

B) Remove aging and damaged blood cells
Explanation: The spleen's major function is to remove aging and damaged blood cells or particles from the circulation and to initiate adaptive immune responses to blood-borne antigens.

p.12
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

What is the function of MHC Class II molecules?
A) To present antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic T cells
B) To present antigens to CD4+ helper T cells
C) To directly kill pathogens
D) To produce antibodies
E) To secrete cytokines

B) To present antigens to CD4+ helper T cells
Explanation: MHC Class II molecules present antigens to CD4+ helper T cells, which is crucial for initiating the helper T cell response.

p.9
T and B Cell Development

Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
A) Spleen
B) Lymph nodes
C) Bone marrow
D) Tonsils
E) Peyer's patches

C) Bone marrow
Explanation: Bone marrow is a primary lymphoid organ where partial maturation of B lymphocytes occurs.

p.13
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

What attracts dendritic cells to the paracortex?
A) Hormones
B) Chemokines
C) Antibodies
D) Enzymes
E) Lipids

B) Chemokines
Explanation: Chemokines present in the paracortex attract dendritic cells so they can present antigens to T helper cells.

p.5
Adaptive Immunity Overview

How does the response to repeat infection differ between innate and adaptive immunity?
A) Same each time for both
B) More rapid and effective with each subsequent exposure for innate
C) More rapid and effective with each subsequent exposure for adaptive
D) Slower each time for both
E) No difference

C) More rapid and effective with each subsequent exposure for adaptive
Explanation: Adaptive immunity becomes more rapid and effective with each subsequent exposure due to the presence of memory cells.

p.5
T and B Cell Development

What is the role of clonal selection in adaptive immunity?
A) Immediate response to infection
B) Activation, proliferation, and differentiation of lymphocytes
C) Formation of natural barriers
D) Production of pattern recognition molecules
E) Secretion of complement proteins

B) Activation, proliferation, and differentiation of lymphocytes
Explanation: Clonal selection involves the activation, proliferation, and differentiation of lymphocytes that recognize a specific antigen, leading to the formation of plasma cells, effector cells, and memory cells.

p.8
Cytokine Functions and Interactions

Which cells are responsible for producing cytokines?
A) B cells
B) Plasma cells
C) Helper T cells
D) Dendritic cells
E) Macrophages

C) Helper T cells
Explanation: Helper T cells produce cytokines, which are crucial for regulating immune responses.

p.7
T and B Cell Development

Where do thymocytes enter the thymus during T cell development?
A) Subcapsular cortex
B) Outer cortex
C) Inner medulla
D) Corticomedullary junctions
E) Secondary lymphoid organs

D) Corticomedullary junctions
Explanation: Thymocytes enter the thymus via blood vessels located in the corticomedullary junctions, which is the initial point of entry before they migrate to other regions of the thymus.

p.4
Regulation of Immune Responses

What is the role of IL-10 in the immune response?
A) Promotes inflammation
B) Inhibits activation of macrophages and dendritic cells
C) Enhances phagocytosis
D) Acts as an opsonin
E) Promotes differentiation of TH2 cells

B) Inhibits activation of macrophages and dendritic cells
Explanation: IL-10 is a cytokine that inhibits the activation of macrophages and dendritic cells, acting as a negative feedback regulator in the immune response.

p.2
Inflammation and Immune Response

What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?
A) Pain, redness, heat, swelling, and loss of function
B) Fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, and fatigue
C) Cough, sneezing, runny nose, sore throat, and headache
D) Rash, itching, blisters, peeling, and dryness
E) Dizziness, fainting, sweating, palpitations, and shortness of breath

A) Pain, redness, heat, swelling, and loss of function
Explanation: The cardinal signs of inflammation are pain (dolor), redness (rubor), heat (calor), swelling (tumor), and loss of function (functio laesa), which can be explained by increased blood flow, elevated cellular metabolism, vasodilation, release of soluble mediators, and extravasation of fluids.

p.2
Leukocyte Recruitment Mechanisms

What is the first step in leukocyte recruitment into tissues?
A) Transmigration of leukocytes through the endothelium
B) Production of cytokines TNF and IL-1
C) Increase in integrin affinity
D) Selectin-mediated rolling of leukocytes
E) Migration of leukocytes to the site of infection

B) Production of cytokines TNF and IL-1
Explanation: The first step in leukocyte recruitment into tissues is the production of cytokines TNF and IL-1 by activated macrophages, mast cells, and other sentinel cells at the site of infection.

p.13
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

Where do migratory dendritic cells go to present antigens to T helper cells?
A) Follicle cells
B) Paracortex (T cell zone)
C) Bone marrow
D) Thymus
E) Spleen

B) Paracortex (T cell zone)
Explanation: Migratory dendritic cells move toward the paracortex (T cell zone) through the afferent lymphatics to present antigens to T helper cells.

p.11
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

What is the primary function of activated B-cells in humoral immune responses?
A) To destroy infected cells
B) To present antigens to CD4+ helper T-cells
C) To produce antibodies
D) To activate CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells
E) To secrete cytokines

B) To present antigens to CD4+ helper T-cells
Explanation: Activated B-cells present antigens to CD4+ helper T-cells, facilitating T-cell and B-cell interactions crucial for humoral immune responses.

p.11
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

What is the role of MHC Class I molecules?
A) To present antigens to CD4+ helper T-cells
B) To present antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells
C) To activate B-cells
D) To secrete antibodies
E) To produce cytokines

B) To present antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells
Explanation: MHC Class I molecules present antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells, which is crucial for the immune response against intracellular infections.

p.11
Phagocytosis and Microbial Destruction

What is the effect of CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells recognizing an antigen presented by MHC Class I molecules?
A) Activation of B-cells
B) Death of the infected cell
C) Secretion of antibodies
D) Activation of macrophages
E) Production of cytokines

B) Death of the infected cell
Explanation: When CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells recognize an antigen presented by MHC Class I molecules, it leads to the death of the infected cell.

p.8
T and B Cell Development

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic marker of T cells?
A) TCR
B) CD3
C) CD4
D) CD8
E) CD19

E) CD19
Explanation: CD19 is a characteristic marker of B cells, not T cells.

p.8
Regulation of Immune Responses

What is the main function of memory lymphocytes?
A) Produce antibodies
B) Destroy infected cells
C) Provide long-term immunity
D) Present antigens
E) Regulate immune responses

C) Provide long-term immunity
Explanation: Memory lymphocytes are responsible for providing long-term immunity by remembering past infections.

p.10
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

What is the primary function of macrophages in the immune response?
A) Secrete antibodies
B) Capture antigens in the bloodstream
C) Antigen presentation to CD4+ effector T-cells in the effector phase of cell-mediated immune responses
D) Produce cytokines
E) Kill infected cells

C) Antigen presentation to CD4+ effector T-cells in the effector phase of cell-mediated immune responses
Explanation: Macrophages present antigens to CD4+ effector T-cells in the effector phase of cell-mediated immune responses.

p.1
Cytokine Functions and Interactions

What is the role of antagonism in cytokine interactions?
A) Cytokine enhances the effect of another cytokine
B) Cytokine counteracts or inhibits the actions of another cytokine
C) Cytokine stimulates the production of additional cytokines
D) Cytokine binds to receptors on target cells
E) Cytokine induces fever

B) Cytokine counteracts or inhibits the actions of another cytokine
Explanation: Antagonism refers to a cytokine counteracting or inhibiting the actions of another cytokine, thereby having opposing effects.

p.14
Regulation of Immune Responses

Which molecule on cytotoxic T cells interacts with Fas on host cells to induce apoptosis?
A) IL-2
B) FasL
C) TGF-β
D) IL-10
E) MHC class II

B) FasL
Explanation: FasL expressed on cytotoxic T cells interacts with Fas on host cells, leading to the sequential activation of proteolytic enzymes called caspases, which cause cell death within hours.

p.12
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

Which cells are considered professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?
A) Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
B) Monocytes, dendritic cells, and B cells
C) Red blood cells, platelets, and macrophages
D) T-cells, B-cells, and NK cells
E) Fibroblasts, endothelial cells, and keratinocytes

B) Monocytes, dendritic cells, and B cells
Explanation: Professional antigen-presenting cells include monocytes, dendritic cells, and B cells, which are essential for presenting antigens to T-cells.

p.8
T and B Cell Development

Where do B cells continue their development after leaving the bone marrow?
A) Thymus
B) Spleen
C) Lymph nodes
D) Skin
E) Pulmonary mucosa

B) Spleen
Explanation: B cells remain in the bone marrow initially and continue their development in the spleen.

p.8
T and B Cell Development

Which cells mature in the thymus?
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Plasma cells
D) Dendritic cells
E) Macrophages

B) T cells
Explanation: T cells mature in the thymus, whereas B cells mature in the bone marrow.

p.8
Leukocyte Recruitment Mechanisms

How often does an individual lymphocyte complete a circuit from the blood to the tissues and lymph nodes and back again?
A) Once a week
B) Once a month
C) Once or twice a day
D) Every few hours
E) Every few minutes

C) Once or twice a day
Explanation: An individual lymphocyte completes a circuit from the blood to the tissues and lymph nodes and back again once or twice a day.

p.3
Inflammation and Immune Response

What is the function of PRRs (Pattern Recognition Receptors) in innate immunity?
A) They inhibit the inflammatory response
B) They recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns
C) They prevent the entry of microbial invaders
D) They deactivate NK cells
E) They reduce the secretion of chemokines

B) They recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns
Explanation: PRRs (Pattern Recognition Receptors) recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns, inducing the inflammatory response and the secretion of chemokines, cytokines, IFNs, and other antimicrobials.

p.4
Phagocytosis and Microbial Destruction

Which of the following is an example of an opsonin that enhances phagocytosis?
A) IL-10
B) CRP
C) IL-17E
D) TGF-β
E) IL-1RA

B) CRP
Explanation: CRP (C-reactive protein) is an opsonin that enhances phagocytosis by marking pathogens for destruction by immune cells.

p.2
Cytokine Functions and Interactions

Which cytokines are produced by sentinel cells at the site of infection?
A) TNF, IL-1, IL-6, and chemokines
B) Insulin and glucagon
C) Dopamine and serotonin
D) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
E) Growth hormone and prolactin

A) TNF, IL-1, IL-6, and chemokines
Explanation: Sentinel cells produce cytokines such as TNF, IL-1, IL-6, and chemokines at the site of infection, which increase local delivery of cells and attract WBCs to the site of infection.

p.7
T and B Cell Development

Where do transitional B cells complete their maturation?
A) Thymus
B) Bone marrow
C) Spleen
D) Secondary lymphoid organs
E) Corticomedullary junctions

C) Spleen
Explanation: Transitional B cells leave the bone marrow and complete their maturation in the spleen, where they acquire surface IgD in addition to IgM.

p.7
Helper T Cell Differentiation

What is the role of mature T cells expressing either CD4+ or CD8+?
A) To bind to MHC molecules
B) To initiate T cell receptor gene rearrangements
C) To migrate to the bone marrow
D) To respond to foreign antigens
E) To undergo apoptosis

A) To bind to MHC molecules
Explanation: Mature T cells express either CD4+ or CD8+ to bind to MHC molecules, which is crucial for their role in the immune response.

p.14
Regulation of Immune Responses

What is the primary function of T regulatory (Treg) cells?
A) Activate macrophages
B) Suppress the immune response
C) Produce antibodies
D) Differentiate into memory cells
E) Stimulate neutrophils

B) Suppress the immune response
Explanation: T regulatory cells suppress the immune response through mechanisms such as cytokine deprivation, secretion of inhibitory cytokines, inhibition of antigen-presenting cells, and cytotoxicity.

p.12
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

Which cells express MHC Class II molecules?
A) All nucleated cells
B) Only red blood cells
C) Antigen-presenting cells like macrophages, dendritic cells, and activated B cells
D) Only epithelial cells
E) Only muscle cells

C) Antigen-presenting cells like macrophages, dendritic cells, and activated B cells
Explanation: MHC Class II molecules are expressed on antigen-presenting cells such as macrophages, dendritic cells, and activated B cells.

p.9
T and B Cell Development

What is the function of the spleen in the immune response?
A) Site of T lymphocyte maturation
B) Filters lymphatic fluid
C) Removes aged and damaged RBCs
D) Produces antibodies
E) Engulfs pathogens

C) Removes aged and damaged RBCs
Explanation: The spleen removes aged and damaged red blood cells and is also a site for the complete maturation of B cells.

p.5
Adaptive Immunity Overview

What is the response time for innate immunity?
A) Seconds
B) Minutes to hours
C) Days
D) Weeks
E) Months

B) Minutes to hours
Explanation: Innate immunity responds quickly, within minutes to hours, providing an immediate defense against infection.

p.3
Phagocytosis and Microbial Destruction

What is required for phagocytes to effectively engulf large particles?
A) Low-affinity receptors
B) High-affinity receptors for certain opsonins
C) Absence of opsonins
D) High levels of glucose
E) Low levels of oxygen

B) High-affinity receptors for certain opsonins
Explanation: Phagocytosis requires that phagocytes possess high-affinity receptors for certain opsonins, such as antibody molecules, complement proteins, and plasma lectins.

p.3
Phagocytosis and Microbial Destruction

Which of the following is NOT a class of microbicidal molecules?
A) Reactive oxygen species (ROS)
B) Nitric oxide (NO)
C) Lysosomal enzymes
D) Interferon gamma (IFNγ)
E) Reactive nitrogen species (RNS)

D) Interferon gamma (IFNγ)
Explanation: The three classes of microbicidal molecules are reactive oxygen species (ROS), nitric oxide (NO), and lysosomal enzymes. Interferon gamma (IFNγ) is not a class of microbicidal molecules.

p.2
Inflammation and Immune Response

What is the primary function of inflammation?
A) To reduce blood flow
B) To bring leukocytes and plasma proteins to infection sites
C) To decrease cellular metabolism
D) To prevent virus replication
E) To eliminate healthy cells

B) To bring leukocytes and plasma proteins to infection sites
Explanation: Inflammation is the process by which leukocytes and circulating plasma proteins are brought into sites of infection and activated to destroy and eliminate the offending agents.

p.10
Cytokine Functions and Interactions

Which cytokine is primarily involved in the autocrine pathway of T-cell proliferation?
A) IL-1
B) IL-4
C) IL-2
D) IL-6
E) IL-10

C) IL-2
Explanation: T-cells respond by producing and expressing IL-2 receptors, leading to an autocrine pathway of cell proliferation.

p.4
Regulation of Immune Responses

Which protein inhibits JAK-STAT signaling pathways linked to cytokine receptors?
A) CRP
B) IL-10
C) SOCS proteins
D) TGF-β
E) IL-1RA

C) SOCS proteins
Explanation: Suppressors of cytokine signaling (SOCS) proteins inhibit JAK-STAT signaling pathways linked to cytokine receptors, thereby regulating the immune response.

p.4
Phagocytosis and Microbial Destruction

What is the primary role of the complement system in the innate immune response?
A) Inhibits inflammation
B) Enhances phagocytosis and forms the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)
C) Promotes differentiation of TH2 cells
D) Acts as an opsonin
E) Inhibits activation of macrophages

B) Enhances phagocytosis and forms the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)
Explanation: The complement system enhances phagocytosis through opsonization and forms the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) to lyse pathogens.

p.1
Acute Phase Response and Proteins

What is the function of C-reactive protein (CRP) in the acute phase response?
A) Enhances the effect of other cytokines
B) Increases plasma viscosity and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
C) Inhibits the production of other cytokines
D) Stimulates the production of neurotransmitters
E) Acts as a specific marker of bacterial infection

B) Increases plasma viscosity and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Explanation: C-reactive protein (CRP) is an acute phase protein that increases plasma viscosity and consequently increases the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), serving as a marker for inflammation.

p.14
Helper T Cell Differentiation

What role do pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) on antigen-presenting cells (APCs) play in T cell differentiation?
A) They directly kill pathogens
B) They produce polarizing cytokines
C) They present antigens to B cells
D) They inhibit T cell activation
E) They secrete antibodies

B) They produce polarizing cytokines
Explanation: PRRs on APCs detect pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) from pathogens, influencing the production of specific polarizing cytokines that guide the differentiation of naive T cells into specific T helper cell subsets.

p.6
Adaptive Immunity Overview

Which of the following is NOT a type of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?
A) NALT
B) BALT
C) SALT
D) GALT
E) PALT

E) PALT
Explanation: The types of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT) include NALT (Nasal), BALT (Bronchus), SALT (Skin), and GALT (Gut). PALT is not a recognized type of MALT.

p.8
Helper T Cell Differentiation

What is the primary function of effector B cells?
A) Produce cytokines
B) Produce antibodies
C) Destroy infected cells
D) Present antigens
E) Regulate immune responses

B) Produce antibodies
Explanation: Effector B cells, also known as plasma cells, are responsible for producing antibodies.

p.5
Adaptive Immunity Overview

Which immune components are associated with innate immunity?
A) Antigen recognition molecules (B and T cell receptors)
B) Secreted molecules (antibody, cytokines)
C) Natural barriers (skin, mucous membranes)
D) MHC proteins
E) Memory cells

C) Natural barriers (skin, mucous membranes)
Explanation: Innate immunity includes natural barriers such as skin and mucous membranes, as well as phagocytes, NK cells, and soluble mediators like cytokines and complement.

p.8
Leukocyte Recruitment Mechanisms

What is the main location of T cells in the lymph nodes?
A) Follicles
B) Medulla
C) Paracortical area
D) Subcapsular sinuses
E) Germinal centers

C) Paracortical area
Explanation: T cells are primarily located in the paracortical area of the lymph nodes.

p.5
T and B Cell Development

Which of the following is a primary lymphoid tissue?
A) Lymph nodes
B) Spleen
C) Thymus
D) Liver
E) Tonsils

C) Thymus
Explanation: The thymus is a primary lymphoid tissue where T cells mature before entering the circulation and migrating to secondary lymphoid organs.

p.7
T and B Cell Development

What occurs during the early thymocyte development phase?
A) Positive selection
B) Negative selection
C) Commitment of hematopoietic precursors to the T cell lineage
D) Migration to the medulla
E) Expression of CD4 or CD8

C) Commitment of hematopoietic precursors to the T cell lineage
Explanation: During the early thymocyte development phase, hematopoietic precursors commit to the T cell lineage, initiate T cell receptor gene rearrangements, and expand cells that have successfully undergone gene rearrangement.

p.14
Regulation of Immune Responses

What is the significance of apoptosis induced by cytotoxic T cells?
A) It releases cell contents, causing inflammation
B) It prevents the spread of infectious viruses
C) It activates B cells
D) It enhances antigen presentation
E) It stimulates neutrophil activity

B) It prevents the spread of infectious viruses
Explanation: Apoptosis induced by cytotoxic T cells does not result in the release of cell contents, thereby preventing an inflammatory response and the spread of infectious viruses to other cells.

p.6
Adaptive Immunity Overview

What is the primary function of humoral immunity?
A) Activate macrophages
B) Kill infected cells
C) Block infections and eliminate extracellular microbes
D) Produce cytokines
E) Initiate phagocytosis

C) Block infections and eliminate extracellular microbes
Explanation: Humoral immunity, mediated by B lymphocytes and antibodies, primarily functions to block infections and eliminate extracellular microbes.

p.9
Inflammation and Immune Response

Which type of white blood cell increases during acute bacterial infections?
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes

A) Neutrophils
Explanation: Neutrophils increase during acute bacterial infections, playing a crucial role in the body's immediate response to bacterial pathogens.

p.5
Adaptive Immunity Overview

Which of the following is a characteristic of adaptive immunity?
A) Antigen non-specific
B) No memory
C) Limited and fixed specificity
D) Highly diverse; adapts to improve during the course of immune response
E) Same response each time

D) Highly diverse; adapts to improve during the course of immune response
Explanation: Adaptive immunity is characterized by its high diversity and ability to adapt and improve its response during the course of an immune response.

p.8
Leukocyte Recruitment Mechanisms

What percentage of mature naive lymphocytes travel to the spleen after 30 minutes in circulation?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
E) 50%

E) 50%
Explanation: After 30 minutes in circulation, 50% of the mature naive lymphocytes produced by the thymus and bone marrow travel directly to the spleen.

p.5
T and B Cell Development

Where do T cells mature?
A) Bone marrow
B) Spleen
C) Thymus
D) Lymph nodes
E) Liver

C) Thymus
Explanation: T cells mature in the thymus before entering the circulation and migrating to secondary lymphoid organs.

p.2
Inflammation and Immune Response

Which cells are considered sentinel cells in the context of inflammation?
A) Red blood cells
B) Neurons
C) Tissue-resident macrophages, dendritic cells, kupffer cells, and mast cells
D) Platelets
E) Muscle cells

C) Tissue-resident macrophages, dendritic cells, kupffer cells, and mast cells
Explanation: Sentinel cells, such as tissue-resident macrophages, dendritic cells, kupffer cells, and mast cells, are already present in the injured area and initiate inflammation.

p.10
T and B Cell Development

What is the first step in the activation of T-lymphocytes?
A) Cytokine secretion
B) Antigen recognition
C) Proliferation
D) Differentiation
E) Migration

B) Antigen recognition
Explanation: The first step in the activation of T-lymphocytes is the recognition of major histocompatibility complex-associated peptide antigens displayed on antigen-presenting cells (APCs).

p.4
Regulation of Immune Responses

Which cytokine is known for inhibiting inflammation?
A) IL-1
B) IL-17E
C) TGF-β
D) IL-6
E) TNF-α

C) TGF-β
Explanation: Transforming Growth Factor β (TGF-β) is an anti-inflammatory cytokine that inhibits inflammation.

p.7
T and B Cell Development

What is the first antibody produced by an immature B cell?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgE
E) IgD

C) IgM
Explanation: The first antibody produced by an immature B cell is of the IgM class, marking the initial stage of antibody production in B cell development.

p.4
Regulation of Immune Responses

What is the primary function of IL-17E (IL-25) in the immune response?
A) Enhances phagocytosis
B) Promotes differentiation of TH2 cells
C) Acts as an opsonin
D) Inhibits inflammation
E) Natural antagonist of IL-1

B) Promotes differentiation of TH2 cells
Explanation: IL-17E (IL-25) promotes the differentiation of the anti-inflammatory T helper 2 (TH2) cell subclass while suppressing T17 cell responses.

p.1
Acute Phase Response and Proteins

What is the role of serum amyloid A during inflammation?
A) Inhibits the production of other cytokines
B) Recruits immune cells to the inflammation site
C) Increases plasma viscosity
D) Stimulates the production of neurotransmitters
E) Acts as a specific marker of bacterial infection

B) Recruits immune cells to the inflammation site
Explanation: Serum amyloid A is an acute phase protein that recruits immune cells to the site of inflammation and can rise a thousand-fold in blood concentration during inflammation.

p.14
Helper T Cell Differentiation

Which T helper cell subset is primarily involved in activating B cells?
A) TH1
B) TH2
C) TH17
D) TFH
E) Treg

D) TFH
Explanation: TFH (Follicular helper T cells) are primarily involved in activating B cells and are found in the follicles of lymph nodes.

p.6
Adaptive Immunity Overview

Where does the initiation of the adaptive immune response occur?
A) Bone marrow
B) Thymus
C) Cervical lymph nodes
D) Liver
E) Kidneys

C) Cervical lymph nodes
Explanation: The initiation of the adaptive immune response occurs in lymph nodes such as cervical, axillary, and inguinal nodes, where antigens are captured and recognized by B and T cells.

p.12
Helper T Cell Differentiation

What is the primary role of CD4+ helper T-cells in the immune response?
A) To directly kill infected cells
B) To produce antibodies
C) To instruct B-cells to produce antibodies
D) To recognize antigens presented by MHC Class I molecules
E) To secrete toxins to eliminate pathogens

C) To instruct B-cells to produce antibodies
Explanation: CD4+ helper T-cells play a crucial role in the immune response by instructing B-cells to produce antibodies, which help in opsonizing pathogens.

p.9
T and B Cell Development

What percentage of lymphocytes are found in the circulation?
A) 50%
B) 20%
C) 5%
D) 35%
E) 10%

C) 5%
Explanation: Only 5% of mature lymphocytes are found in the circulation, where they constitute 20-35% of all white blood cells (WBCs).

p.9
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

Which cells use pattern recognition receptors to recognize PAMPs and DAMPs?
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Dendritic cells
D) Cells of the innate immune system
E) Plasma cells

D) Cells of the innate immune system
Explanation: Cells of the innate immune system use pattern recognition receptors to recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) and damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs).

p.13
T and B Cell Development

What happens if a T cell receives signal 1 but not signal 2?
A) The T cell will proliferate
B) The T cell will differentiate
C) The T cell will turn off
D) The T cell will produce antibodies
E) The T cell will migrate to the thymus

C) The T cell will turn off
Explanation: If a T cell receives signal 1 (TCR signaling) but not signal 2 (costimulatory interaction), the T cell will turn off.

p.13
Helper T Cell Differentiation

How do cytotoxic T cells induce apoptosis in target cells?
A) By producing antibodies
B) By releasing granules containing perforin and granzymes
C) By secreting cytokines
D) By binding to MHC class II molecules
E) By activating B cells

B) By releasing granules containing perforin and granzymes
Explanation: Cytotoxic T cells induce apoptosis in target cells by releasing granules containing perforin, which forms pores in the target cell membrane, and granzymes, which pass into the target cell to induce cell death.

p.5
Regulation of Immune Responses

What is the primary function of memory cells in adaptive immunity?
A) Immediate response to infection
B) Mimic the reactive specificity of the original lymphocytes
C) Formation of natural barriers
D) Production of pattern recognition molecules
E) Secretion of complement proteins

B) Mimic the reactive specificity of the original lymphocytes
Explanation: Memory cells mimic the reactive specificity of the original lymphocytes that responded to the antigen, allowing for a more rapid and effective response upon subsequent exposures.

p.5
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

What is the main site for antigen recognition in adaptive immunity?
A) Bone marrow
B) Thymus
C) Local lymph node
D) Liver
E) Skin

C) Local lymph node
Explanation: Antigen recognition mainly occurs at the local lymph node, which induces the activation, proliferation, and differentiation of the responsive lymphocytes.

p.7
Helper T Cell Differentiation

What happens to T cells that do not bind to MHC during positive selection?
A) They proliferate
B) They undergo apoptosis
C) They migrate to the medulla
D) They become CD4+ cells
E) They become CD8+ cells

B) They undergo apoptosis
Explanation: During positive selection, T cells that do not bind to MHC molecules undergo apoptosis, ensuring that only T cells capable of recognizing MHC molecules survive.

p.4
Regulation of Immune Responses

What is the function of IL-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1RA)?
A) Promotes inflammation
B) Natural antagonist of IL-1
C) Enhances phagocytosis
D) Acts as an opsonin
E) Inhibits activation of macrophages

B) Natural antagonist of IL-1
Explanation: IL-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1RA) is a natural antagonist of IL-1, produced by macrophages to regulate the immune response.

p.7
Helper T Cell Differentiation

What happens to T cells that bind strongly to MHC and self-antigens during negative selection?
A) They proliferate
B) They undergo apoptosis
C) They migrate to the medulla
D) They become CD4+ cells
E) They become CD8+ cells

B) They undergo apoptosis
Explanation: During negative selection, T cells that bind strongly to MHC and self-antigens undergo apoptosis to ensure self-tolerance and prevent autoimmune responses.

p.1
Cytokine Functions and Interactions

What is cascade induction in cytokine interactions?
A) Cytokine inhibits the effects of another cytokine
B) Sequential activation of cytokines in response to a stimulus
C) Cytokine binds to receptors on target cells
D) Cytokine induces fever
E) Cytokine enhances the effect of another cytokine

B) Sequential activation of cytokines in response to a stimulus
Explanation: Cascade induction involves the sequential activation of cytokines in response to a stimulus, amplifying and coordinating immune responses.

p.6
Adaptive Immunity Overview

Which zone in the spleen is rich in lymphocytes?
A) Red pulp
B) White pulp
C) Cortex
D) Medulla
E) Sinusoid

B) White pulp
Explanation: The white pulp of the spleen is rich in lymphocytes and includes the T cell zone (Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath/PALS) and the B cell zone (follicles).

p.9
Helper T Cell Differentiation

What is the primary function of plasma cells?
A) Engulfing pathogens
B) Secreting immunoglobulins
C) Filtering lymphatic fluid
D) Presenting antigens
E) Producing cytokines

B) Secreting immunoglobulins
Explanation: Plasma cells are specialized for the synthesis and secretion of immunoglobulins, which are crucial for the adaptive immune response.

p.3
Cytokine Functions and Interactions

Which cytokines enhance the production of leukocytes from bone marrow progenitors?
A) IL-2, IL-4, IL-10
B) TNF, IL-1, IL-6
C) IFNα, IFNβ, IL-12
D) IL-8, C35, C3a
E) IL-5, IL-7, IL-9

B) TNF, IL-1, IL-6
Explanation: TNF, IL-1, and IL-6 produced at inflammatory sites enter the blood and work with CSF to enhance the production of leukocytes, especially neutrophils, from bone marrow progenitors.

p.3
Phagocytosis and Microbial Destruction

What happens to microbes once they are internalized into phagosomes?
A) They are immediately released
B) They are fused with lysosomes to form phagolysosomes
C) They are transported to the nucleus
D) They are converted into energy
E) They are expelled from the cell

B) They are fused with lysosomes to form phagolysosomes
Explanation: Once internalized into phagosomes, microbes are fused with lysosomes to form phagolysosomes, where they are killed by microbicidal agents.

p.3
Cytokine Functions and Interactions

What is the clinical use of Interferon α (IFNα)?
A) Treatment of bacterial infections
B) Therapy for multiple sclerosis
C) Anti-viral agent in some forms of viral hepatitis
D) Treatment of autoimmune diseases
E) Therapy for cardiovascular diseases

C) Anti-viral agent in some forms of viral hepatitis
Explanation: Interferon α (IFNα) is used clinically as an anti-viral agent in some forms of viral hepatitis and also for the treatment of some tumors.

p.11
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

What type of pathogens are primarily presented on MHC Class II molecules?
A) Viruses in the cytosol
B) Extracellular bacteria and pathogens in cellular vesicles
C) Intracellular bacteria
D) Fungi
E) Parasites in the bloodstream

B) Extracellular bacteria and pathogens in cellular vesicles
Explanation: MHC Class II molecules primarily present antigens from extracellular bacteria and pathogens that replicate in cellular vesicles.

p.5
Adaptive Immunity Overview

Which of the following is NOT a component of innate immunity?
A) Phagocytes
B) NK cells
C) Antibodies
D) Natural barriers
E) Pattern recognition molecules

C) Antibodies
Explanation: Antibodies are part of adaptive immunity, whereas innate immunity includes components like phagocytes, NK cells, natural barriers, and pattern recognition molecules.

p.10
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

Which cells are considered classical antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Dendritic cells, Langerhans cells, Macrophages, B-cells
D) Red blood cells
E) Platelets

C) Dendritic cells, Langerhans cells, Macrophages, B-cells
Explanation: Classical APCs include dendritic cells, Langerhans cells, macrophages, and B-cells.

p.10
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

What happens when APCs encounter pathogens?
A) They secrete antibodies
B) They migrate to the bloodstream
C) They internalize pathogens, digest them into peptides, and present these peptides on their membrane surfaces via MHC class II molecules
D) They kill infected cells
E) They produce red blood cells

C) They internalize pathogens, digest them into peptides, and present these peptides on their membrane surfaces via MHC class II molecules
Explanation: Upon encountering pathogens, APCs internalize the pathogens, digest them into peptides, and present these peptide antigens on their membrane surfaces via MHC class II molecules.

p.1
Acute Phase Response and Proteins

Which cytokines are involved in the acute phase response?
A) IL-2, IL-4, IL-10
B) IL-1, IL-6, TNF-α
C) IL-8, IL-12, IFN-γ
D) IL-5, IL-13, IL-17
E) IL-3, IL-7, IL-9

B) IL-1, IL-6, TNF-α
Explanation: The acute phase response is stimulated by pro-inflammatory cytokines such as IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-α, which are produced by innate immune cells.

p.12
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

What happens when a dendritic cell recognizes a microbe?
A) It becomes immature
B) It downregulates MHC Class II
C) It migrates to the T-cell area of the lymph node
D) It secretes antibodies
E) It undergoes apoptosis

C) It migrates to the T-cell area of the lymph node
Explanation: Upon recognizing a microbe, a dendritic cell becomes mature and migrates to the T-cell area of the lymph node to present antigens to CD4+ T cells.

p.9
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

Which statement about lymph nodes is FALSE?
A) They encounter antigens from the lymphatic system
B) The paracortex is rich in T cells
C) They contain germinal centers
D) They encounter blood-borne antigens
E) They enhance T-cell–APC interactions

D) They encounter blood-borne antigens
Explanation: Lymph nodes encounter antigens from the lymphatic system, not blood-borne pathogens.

p.3
Leukocyte Recruitment Mechanisms

What role does chemokine IL-8 play in leukocyte recruitment?
A) It inhibits leukocyte attachment
B) It activates leukocytes to make attachment firmer
C) It deactivates leukocytes
D) It prevents leukocyte migration
E) It reduces leukocyte production

B) It activates leukocytes to make attachment firmer
Explanation: Chemokine IL-8 activates leukocytes to make their attachment firmer, allowing them to extravasate through the endothelium and migrate towards the source of chemotactic factors.

p.11
T and B Cell Development

Where do resting B-cells reside before they gain the capacity to activate T-cells?
A) In the bloodstream
B) In the bone marrow
C) In the follicles and lymph nodes
D) In the thymus
E) In the spleen

C) In the follicles and lymph nodes
Explanation: Resting B-cells reside in the follicles and lymph nodes and gain the capacity to activate T-cells after binding to an antigen through their B-cell receptor.

p.11
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

Which cells express MHC Class II molecules?
A) All nucleated cells
B) Only T-cells
C) Dendritic cells, macrophages, and B-cells
D) Red blood cells
E) Neurons

C) Dendritic cells, macrophages, and B-cells
Explanation: MHC Class II molecules are expressed on dendritic cells, macrophages, and B-cells, and they present antigens to CD4+ helper T-cells.

p.11
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

How are antigen peptides transported into the ER for MHC Class I presentation?
A) By endocytosis
B) By phagocytosis
C) By transporters associated with antigen-processing (TAP)
D) By exocytosis
E) By diffusion

C) By transporters associated with antigen-processing (TAP)
Explanation: Degraded viral proteins are transported into the ER by specific transporter proteins called transporters associated with antigen-processing (TAP) for MHC Class I presentation.

p.2
Inflammation and Immune Response

What is the role of mast cells during inflammation?
A) They produce antibodies
B) They secrete histamine and prostaglandins
C) They destroy viruses
D) They produce red blood cells
E) They inhibit cytokine production

B) They secrete histamine and prostaglandins
Explanation: Mast cells respond to PAMPs and DAMPs by secreting histamine and prostaglandins, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, enhancing blood flow and movement of plasma proteins.

p.10
Helper T Cell Differentiation

What is the role of CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells?
A) Activate macrophages and B cells
B) Kill infected target cells and activate macrophages
C) Secrete antibodies
D) Capture antigens
E) Produce cytokines

B) Kill infected target cells and activate macrophages
Explanation: CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells are responsible for killing infected target cells and activating macrophages.

p.2
Leukocyte Recruitment Mechanisms

What happens during the selectin-mediated rolling of leukocytes?
A) Leukocytes firmly attach to the endothelium
B) Leukocytes migrate to the site of infection
C) Leukocytes attach on the surface of blood vessels
D) Leukocytes increase integrin affinity
E) Leukocytes produce antibodies

C) Leukocytes attach on the surface of blood vessels
Explanation: During the selectin-mediated rolling of leukocytes, leukocytes attach on the surface of blood vessels through adhesion molecules, initiating the process of leukocyte recruitment.

p.4
Inflammation and Immune Response

What is the effect of increased blood flow during an inflammatory response?
A) Decreases immune cell activity
B) Delivers immune cells and nutrients to the injured area
C) Reduces metabolic activity
D) Inhibits cytokine production
E) Promotes tissue damage

B) Delivers immune cells and nutrients to the injured area
Explanation: Increased blood flow during an inflammatory response delivers immune cells and nutrients to the injured area, aiding in the immune response.

p.14
Helper T Cell Differentiation

Which T helper cell subset primarily targets macrophages?
A) TH1
B) TH2
C) TH17
D) TFH
E) Treg

A) TH1
Explanation: TH1 cells primarily target macrophages, enhancing their phagocytic and antimicrobial activities.

p.9
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

How do T cells recognize antigens?
A) Directly through T cell receptors
B) Through membrane-bound immunoglobulins
C) Only when antigens are bound to MHC molecules
D) By engulfing antigens
E) Through pattern recognition receptors

C) Only when antigens are bound to MHC molecules
Explanation: T cells recognize antigens only when they are processed and presented in the groove of MHC molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells.

p.13
T and B Cell Development

Which of the following is NOT one of the three signals required for naive T-cell activation?
A) TCR signaling
B) Costimulatory interaction
C) Cytokine signaling
D) Antibody binding
E) Engagement of costimulatory molecules

D) Antibody binding
Explanation: The three signals required for naive T-cell activation are TCR signaling, costimulatory interaction, and cytokine signaling. Antibody binding is not one of these signals.

p.13
Helper T Cell Differentiation

What is the role of effector CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes?
A) Produce cytokines
B) Activate B cells
C) Kill infected target cells
D) Present antigens
E) Produce antibodies

C) Kill infected target cells
Explanation: Effector CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes respond by killing infected target cells and activating macrophages.

p.13
T and B Cell Development

What is the function of memory T cells?
A) Produce antibodies
B) Present antigens
C) Have an enhanced ability to react against antigens
D) Activate B cells
E) Secrete hormones

C) Have an enhanced ability to react against antigens
Explanation: Memory T cells are long-lived and have an enhanced ability to react against antigens, providing a quicker and more effective response upon re-exposure to the same antigen.

p.8
Leukocyte Recruitment Mechanisms

What is the role of chemokines in lymphocyte circulation?
A) Destroy pathogens
B) Produce antibodies
C) Regulate interaction routes
D) Present antigens
E) Activate macrophages

C) Regulate interaction routes
Explanation: Chemokines regulate the interaction routes and direct lymphocytes to their respective zones.

p.11
Helper T Cell Differentiation

What is the role of CD4+ helper T-cells in response to antigens presented by MHC Class II molecules?
A) To kill infected cells
B) To activate macrophages to kill pathogens in vesicular compartments
C) To produce antibodies
D) To secrete cytokines
E) To activate CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells

B) To activate macrophages to kill pathogens in vesicular compartments
Explanation: CD4+ helper T-cells assist in the destruction of parasites in vesicular compartments by activating macrophages that harbor pathogens to kill them.

p.7
T and B Cell Development

What is the main purpose of T cell development?
A) To generate T cells that react against self-MHC/peptide complexes
B) To generate T cells that express a diverse array of receptor specificities
C) To produce antibodies
D) To initiate an immune response against self-antigens
E) To migrate to the spleen

B) To generate T cells that express a diverse array of receptor specificities
Explanation: The main purpose of T cell development is to generate a large population of T cells that express a diverse array of receptor specificities that interact with self-MHC/peptide complexes but do not react against them.

p.10
Antigen Presentation and Recognition

What makes dendritic cells the most efficient APCs for initiating primary T-cell responses?
A) Their ability to secrete antibodies
B) Their location in the bloodstream
C) Their strategic location at common sites of entry of microbes and high expression of peptide MHC complexes
D) Their ability to kill infected cells
E) Their role in producing cytokines

C) Their strategic location at common sites of entry of microbes and high expression of peptide MHC complexes
Explanation: Dendritic cells are strategically located at common sites of entry of microbes and express high levels of peptide MHC complexes, costimulators, and cytokines, making them the most efficient APCs for initiating primary T-cell responses.

p.4
Adaptive Immunity Overview

How does the adaptive immune response differ from the innate immune response upon repeated exposure to the same antigen?
A) The adaptive response remains unchanged
B) The adaptive response produces a greater magnitude secondary response
C) The innate response produces a greater magnitude secondary response
D) Both responses remain unchanged
E) The innate response peaks earlier

B) The adaptive response produces a greater magnitude secondary response
Explanation: Upon repeated exposure to the same antigen, the adaptive immune response produces a greater magnitude secondary response that peaks earlier compared to the primary response.

p.1
Acute Phase Response and Proteins

What causes the induction of fever during the acute phase response?
A) Increased synthesis of ACTH
B) Elevated levels of acute phase proteins
C) Release of colony-stimulating factors
D) Migration of dendritic cells to lymph nodes
E) Production of neurotransmitters by prostaglandins

B) Elevated levels of acute phase proteins
Explanation: The induction of fever during the acute phase response is caused by the hypothalamus responding to elevated levels of acute phase proteins, with TNF and IL-1 acting on the hypothalamus to increase the synthesis of prostaglandins.

p.14
Regulation of Immune Responses

How do T regulatory cells inhibit antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?
A) By secreting IL-2
B) By interacting with MHC class II molecules
C) By producing antibodies
D) By activating neutrophils
E) By enhancing cytokine production

B) By interacting with MHC class II molecules
Explanation: T regulatory cells can interact directly with MHC class II expressing antigen-presenting cells and inhibit their maturation, preventing them from presenting antigens effectively.

p.4
Inflammation and Immune Response

Which of the following is NOT a hallmark characteristic of a localized inflammatory response?
A) Redness
B) Pain
C) Heat
D) Swelling
E) Increased blood pressure

E) Increased blood pressure
Explanation: The hallmark characteristics of a localized inflammatory response include redness, pain, heat, swelling, and loss of function, but not increased blood pressure.

p.14
Regulation of Immune Responses

Which cytokines are secreted by T regulatory cells to inhibit T cell activation?
A) IL-2 and IL-4
B) IL-10 and TGF-β
C) IL-6 and IL-12
D) IFN-γ and TNF-α
E) IL-1 and IL-8

B) IL-10 and TGF-β
Explanation: T regulatory cells secrete regulatory cytokines IL-10 and TGF-β, which bind to receptors on activated T cells and reduce their signal activity, thereby inhibiting T cell activation.

Study Smarter, Not Harder
Study Smarter, Not Harder