What is a common symptom of bladder cancer?

Painless hematuria.

What type of pain is associated with bladder cancer?

Pelvic pain.

How is Myasthenia Gravis pronounced?

mi-as-the-ne-a gra-vis.

What is the medical term for contact dermatitis?

Contact Dermatitis (kon-takt der-ma-ti-tis).

What are common diagnostic findings in osteomyelitis?

Increased temperature, pain, and inflammation over the affected bone; elevated WBC and ESR.

What is a clinical finding associated with portal hypertension?

Oral hemorrhage.

What imaging techniques can show masses in the kidneys, ureters, or bladder?

KUB (Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder) or Ultrasound (US).

What are some symptoms associated with hypopituitarism?

Low blood glucose, delayed sexuality, and stunted growth of sexual organs.

What laboratory finding is associated with Gouty Arthritis?

High serum uric acid levels.

What are common physical characteristics of Cushing’s Syndrome?

Moon face, buffalo hump, and truncal obesity.

What are the elevated liver enzymes typically found in Laënnec’s Cirrhosis?

ALT and AST.

What physical findings may indicate Laënnec’s Cirrhosis?

Ascites and edema in the lower extremities.

What is spinal shock?

A period of time after spinal cord injury (SCI) in which there is no motor or sensory transmission.

What condition is characterized by hyperpituitarism?

Excess growth hormone production.

What are the diagnostic findings associated with spinal cord injury?

Loss of sensation, movement, or both after trauma to the neck, thorax, lumbar, or sacral area.

What is the medical term for spinal cord injury?

Spinal Cord Injury (spi-nal kord in-jur-e).

What is a common comorbidity associated with obesity?

Type 2 diabetes.

What are common symptoms of respiratory disorders like sarcoidosis?

Fever, myalgia, night sweats, anorexia, weight loss, fatigue.

What is a common diagnostic finding in urologic disorders related to kidney obstruction?

Hydronephrosis.

What serum sodium level change is associated with Cushing’s Syndrome?

Increased serum sodium.

What is a common behavior in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

Performing rituals a specific number of times and in a specific sequence.

What are common diagnostic findings in musculoskeletal disorders?

Tenderness, pain, or deformity over an area of injury.

What discomfort might patients with bladder cancer experience?

Lower back discomfort.

What is hydronephrosis?

Obstruction of urine outflow from the kidney.

What is azotemia?

A condition characterized by elevated levels of nitrogenous waste products in the blood.

What cholesterol level is considered high in the context of obesity?

Total cholesterol > 200 mg/dL.

What condition is characterized by short stature and delayed sexual development in children?

Hypopituitarism.

What are the characteristics of a herpes simplex lesion?

Painful, itchy, vesicular lesion on the lips or in the nose, may also occur in the genital area.

What is a common symptom of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)?

Chest pain or severe burning occurring within an hour of eating.

What are common triggers for epigastric burning or discomfort?

Tobacco use, alcohol ingestion, stress, or NSAID use.

What are common diagnostic findings in bowel obstruction?

High-pitched bowel sounds, abdominal distention, and pain.

What chronic condition is associated with alcohol consumption?

Laënnec’s Cirrhosis.

What is a common clinical finding in children with hypopituitarism?

Short stature accompanied by weakness.

What condition is characterized by excessive thirst and urination?

Diabetes Insipidus.

What are common diagnostic findings in individuals with alcoholism?

Smell of alcohol on breath, ataxia, slurred speech, and inappropriate affect.

What degenerative condition is often linked to obesity?

Degenerative joint disease.

What diagnostic test is used for detecting antibodies in scleroderma?

ELISA for ANA and other antibodies.

At what level of spinal cord injury does autonomic dysreflexia typically occur?

Above T6.

What are the three classic symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus Type 2?

Polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia.

What are common symptoms of gastrointestinal disorders?

Indigestion, anorexia, weight loss, nausea and vomiting, anemia, melena.

What are common clinical findings in gastrointestinal disorders related to hepatitis?

Lethargy, malaise, headache, anorexia, low-grade fever, right upper quadrant pain, jaundice.

What are common diagnostic findings for a sprain?

Pain, swelling, and heat around a recently injured joint.

What is a phobia?

An irrational fear of an object, place, situation, thing, or person that causes avoidance behaviors.

What BMI indicates obesity?

BMI > 30 kg/m².

What condition is characterized by the symptoms of urinary difficulty in older men?

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia.

What are common symptoms of renal colic?

Flank pain that radiates downward, nausea, vomiting, and costovertebral tenderness.

What are common diagnostic findings for mesothelioma?

Cough, shortness of breath (SOB), and history of asbestos exposure.

What physical sign may indicate withdrawal in an abstinent alcoholic?

Shaking.

What are common diagnostic findings in Paget's Disease?

Enlarged bone mass and deformity of the femur, skull, vertebrae, or pelvis.

What is the term used to describe a chronic disease characterized by alcohol dependence?

Alcoholism.

What is the medical term for a mild traumatic brain injury?

Concussion.

How do clients typically respond to the loss of function in Conversion Disorder?

They seem indifferent to the loss of function.

What laboratory findings indicate acute renal failure?

Elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN).

What are elevated levels of ALT and AST indicative of?

Potential liver dysfunction or damage.

What are common symptoms of urologic disorders related to bladder issues?

Urgency, frequency, and stress incontinence.

What are the sudden onset symptoms of anaphylaxis?

Wheezing, edema of airway, hypotension, tachycardia, feeling of impending doom, and anxiety.

What is a characteristic feature of atonic seizures?

Sudden loss of muscle tone causing a 'drop attack.'

What neurotransmitter is often found at high levels in individuals with schizophrenia?

Dopamine.

What does SIADH stand for?

Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone.

What does asymmetry in a skin lesion suggest?

It may indicate a potential skin cancer.

What is a key symptom of epididymitis?

Painful inflammation of the back of the testes.

What factors can worsen the pain in pancreatitis?

Extension of the legs or ingestion of food.

What does low H&H indicate in the context of Peptic Ulcer Disease?

It indicates low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, often due to bleeding.

In which population is Impetigo most commonly found?

Usually in children.

Which laboratory values are elevated in cholecystitis?

Amylase and bilirubin.

What behaviors are commonly associated with phobias?

Avoidance behaviors.

What condition is characterized by softening of bones in children and adults?

Osteomalacia.

What is a key symptom of autonomic dysreflexia in spinal cord injuries above T6?

Sudden onset of headache.

What are common symptoms of Otitis Media?

Fever and pain in the ear.

What is mesothelioma?

A type of cancer associated with asbestos exposure.

What is a common history finding in patients with hemorrhoids?

History of constipation.

What is Celiac Disease?

A gastrointestinal disorder characterized by an immune reaction to gluten.

What conditions are Otitis Media usually associated with?

Colds and allergies.

What condition is characterized by pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, and coolness to the touch?

Compartment Syndrome.

What type of lesions are associated with hemorrhoids?

Painful anal lesions.

What does schizophrenia mean?

It means 'split mind,' indicating a chasm between the client and the environment.

What urine marker is elevated in Paget's Disease?

Increased urine hydroxyproline.

What symptoms may accompany exacerbations of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Fatigue and flu-like symptoms.

What is the medical term for Tinea?

Tinea (tin-e-a).

What does 'pulselessness' indicate in an injured area?

Lack of blood flow to the area.

What are common symptoms of a Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)?

Urinary frequency, urgency, and dysuria.

What does the term 'irregular borders' refer to in the context of skin lesions?

It refers to the uneven edges of a lesion, which can be a warning sign for skin cancer.

What are the glucose and protein levels typically found in CSF during meningitis?

Low glucose and high protein.

What condition is characterized by loss of bone density?

Osteoporosis.

What other enzymes are elevated in pancreatitis?

Amylase, lipase, and glucose.

What type of cancer is associated with urologic disorders?

Prostate cancer.

What is the medical term for pneumonia?

Pneumonia (nu-mo-ne-a).

What are common diagnostic findings for lung cancer?

Persistent cough, weight loss, and history of or current cigarette smoking.

What is Addison’s Disease?

A disorder where the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones, particularly cortisol.

What condition is associated with epigastric burning or discomfort?

Gastritis.

What condition is indicated by high-pitched bowel sounds and abdominal distention?

Bowel obstruction.

What condition is characterized by esophageal varices?

Portal hypertension.

What is the medical term for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia?

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH).

What are common diagnostic or clinical findings in gastrointestinal disorders?

Bloating, diarrhea, rashes, anemia, malnutrition, and failure to thrive.

What can precipitate acute renal failure?

Severe hypotension, use of diagnostic contrast dyes, or structural damage to nephrons.

What is Conversion Disorder?

A mental health disorder where anxiety manifests as paralysis, blindness, or other physical symptoms without a medical explanation.

What causes the brittleness of bones in adults with osteomalacia?

Softening of bone.

What are common symptoms of gastrointestinal disorders?

Burning, chest pain, heartburn, dysphagia, GERD, and a feeling of fullness.

What is Legionnaires’ Disease?

A type of pneumonia caused by Legionella bacteria.

What type of symptoms are associated with Conversion Disorder?

Physical symptoms such as paralysis or blindness.

What type of injuries typically require a neurovascular assessment?

Crush injuries or fractures.

What are common symptoms of osteoarthritis?

Pain and stiffness in the weight-bearing joints and the vertebral column.

What symptom indicates liver involvement in gastrointestinal disorders?

Jaundice.

What is a key feeling associated with anaphylaxis?

Feeling of impending doom.

What is the significance of estrogen-replacement therapy in relation to bone density?

Women who have never used estrogen-replacement therapy are at higher risk for loss of bone density.

What is a characteristic appearance of the small bowel in Crohn's Disease?

Cobblestone appearance.

What are the characteristic crusts associated with Impetigo?

Honey-colored crusts on the lips, mouth, nose, hands, or perineum.

What does rapid cycling in Bipolar Disorder indicate?

A more severe illness, defined as four episodes per year.

Which liver enzymes are elevated in pancreatitis?

ALT and AST.

What recurrent thoughts may be experienced by individuals with depression?

Recurrent thoughts of death or suicide.

What are common diagnostic findings in respiratory disorders associated with influenza?

Fever, myalgia, respiratory and gastrointestinal symptoms.

What is Diabetes Insipidus?

A disorder characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine.

What are the diagnostic findings associated with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis?

Fasciculations and atrophy of muscle groups with progressive weakness.

What types of dysfunction can occur later in individuals with Cystic Fibrosis?

Respiratory, gastrointestinal, and reproductive dysfunction.

What does PTSD stand for?

Posttraumatic Stress Disorder.

What type of burns are characterized by superficial and partial-thickness damage?

Superficial and Partial-Thickness Burns.

What is Hypothyroidism?

A condition where the thyroid gland is underactive and does not produce enough thyroid hormones.

What is a key diagnostic finding of an abdominal hernia?

An abdominal area that bulges out, especially when intra-abdominal pressure increases.

What is a characteristic facial appearance in scleroderma?

Taut face without wrinkles.

What are the three key clinical findings associated with acute renal failure?

Azotemia, anuria, or oliguria.

What are common diagnostic findings in Legionnaires’ Disease?

Dry cough, myalgia, and abnormal lung sounds.

What type of exposure is associated with Legionnaires’ Disease?

Exposure to contaminated water droplets.

What is the medical term for the condition characterized by the presence of diverticula in the colon?

Diverticulosis.

What is hyperpituitarism?

A condition involving excess production of hormones by the pituitary gland.

What serum marker is increased in Paget's Disease?

Increased serum ALP (alkaline phosphatase).

What laboratory findings are elevated in hepatitis?

Elevated ALT and AST levels.

How is the range of motion affected in musculoskeletal disorders?

It is decreased.

What is a key characteristic of the symptoms in Conversion Disorder?

There is no medical explanation for the symptoms.

What does the term 'paresthesia' refer to in the context of neurovascular assessment?

Abnormal sensations, such as tingling or numbness.

What does edema in the lower extremities indicate?

Possible fluid retention or circulatory issues.

What type of pain is associated with hepatitis?

Right upper quadrant pain.

What are atonic seizures also known as?

Drop attacks.

What other markers are increased in urine and serum in Paget's Disease?

Increased urine and serum calcium.

What joints are primarily affected by osteoarthritis?

Weight-bearing joints and the vertebral column.

What appetite changes might occur in someone with depression?

Changes in appetite.

What condition is associated with the findings of elevated ALT, AST, ascites, edema, and increased bilirubin?

Liver cancer.

What is the medical term for the inflammation of the epididymis?

Epididymitis.

What type of lesions are associated with Impetigo?

Shallow vesicles that rupture easily.

What is the full name of the disease associated with these findings?

Acquired Immunodeficiency Disease.

What type of cancer is associated with positive stool tests and changes in bowel habits?

Colon cancer.

What is a common skin manifestation of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

Butterfly rash.

What joint symptom is associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

Arthritis.

What is Hyperthyroidism?

A condition where the thyroid gland is overactive and produces excessive thyroid hormones.

What are the periods of motor function changes in Multiple Sclerosis?

Exacerbating and remitting periods of degenerating motor function.

What type of bacteria is associated with the development of Rheumatic Endocarditis?

Beta-hemolytic streptococci.

What is a key symptom of Trigeminal Neuralgia?

Severe knife-like facial pain unilaterally in response to movement, touch, or cool breeze.

What are common diagnostic findings in urologic disorders?

Hypertension, oliguria, and smoky, frothy urine.

What changes in health status can occur in patients with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

Change in vision and renal status.

Which joint is typically affected by a sprain as mentioned in the clue?

Usually the ankle.

What are common diagnostic findings in pancreatic cancer?

Weight loss, anorexia; increased amylase, lipase, and bilirubin.

What symptom is associated with bowel obstruction?

Abdominal pain.

What is a common symptom of Gouty Arthritis?

Acute pain and swelling in a joint, usually the great toe (unilaterally).

What are some diagnostic findings associated with excess growth hormone?

Abnormal lipid levels and high blood glucose levels.

What is the medical term for kidney stones?

Renal Calculus.

What is a common result of a blow to the head?

Changes in level of consciousness (LOC).

What does an otoscopic examination reveal in cases of Otitis Media?

A reddened and swollen tympanic membrane.

In which population is Paget's Disease most commonly found?

Usually in older adults.

What exposure history is significant in diagnosing mesothelioma?

History of asbestos exposure.

What does GERD stand for?

Gastroesophageal reflux disease.

What is a common symptom of Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?

Intermittent claudication in the calves associated with activity.

What is the serum sodium level change in Addison's Disease?

Decreased serum sodium (Na+).

Where are the lesions of Kaposi’s Sarcoma first usually seen?

On the mucous membranes.

What type of pain is associated with Peptic Ulcer Disease?

Gnawing, burning pain in the midepigastric area 2–4 hours after meals or in the left epigastric area with meals.

What movement may indicate the presence of Pediculosis Capitis?

Movement of insects in the hair.

What is the medical term for Kaposi’s Sarcoma?

Kaposi’s Sarcoma (kap-o-sez sar-ko-ma).

What physical symptoms accompany Panic Disorder?

Palpitations, numbness of the arms, chest discomfort, and dizziness.

What type of pain is associated with cholecystitis?

Right upper quadrant pain that radiates to the right scapula.

What is replaced during a Total Hip Replacement?

The femoral head and placement of an acetabular cup.

What laboratory finding is often elevated in cases of appendicitis?

Increased white blood cell count (↑ WBC).

What does TKR stand for?

Total Knee Replacement.

What condition is indicated by rebound tenderness at McBurney point?

Appendicitis.

What does a positive stool test indicate in the context of gastrointestinal disorders?

It indicates the presence of blood in the stool.

What condition is characterized by the loss of central vision?

Macular Degeneration.

What does the Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) cause?

Excessive release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and hyponatremia.

What is Cushing’s Syndrome?

A condition caused by excessive cortisol production, leading to various symptoms including weight gain and high blood pressure.

What is a significant risk factor for lung cancer?

Cigarette smoking.

What is a common diagnostic finding in Bell's Palsy?

Unilateral drooping of the face.

What are common difficulties associated with Attention Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

Difficulty focusing, finishing projects, listening to instructions, and sitting still.

In which populations may cellulitis be more prevalent?

Those with diabetes or peripheral vascular disease.

What is a common symptom of Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma?

Bilateral, usually painless loss of vision.

What is the clinical term for the inability to recall stressful memories?

Dissociative Amnesia.

What condition is characterized by unilateral facial drooping and inability to blink?

Bell's Palsy.

What changes might occur in patients with bladder cancer?

Changes in voiding patterns.

What is a diagnostic finding associated with Diabetes Insipidus?

Low specific gravity of urine <1.005.

What are common urinary symptoms in men approaching their fifth decade of life?

Difficulty starting or maintaining urinary stream, dribbling of urine, urgency, and frequency.

What does a positive bone biopsy indicate in the context of osteomyelitis?

It indicates the presence of infection.

What is the typical urinary output for someone with Diabetes Insipidus?

Excess of 5–15 liters daily.

What may help in the prevention of pancreatic cancer?

Increased vitamin D intake.

What is a common laboratory finding in Cushing’s Syndrome related to glucose levels?

Increased serum glucose.

What can cause hydronephrosis?

Lithiasis, tumor, or outflow obstruction from the bladder.

What happens when gentle pressure is applied to an abdominal hernia?

It can cause reduction or popping back of the abdominal contents.

How are esophageal varices pronounced?

e-sof-a-je-al var-i-sez.

What electrolyte imbalance is often seen in Cushing’s Syndrome?

Decreased potassium (K+).

What are common symptoms of osteomalacia in children?

Bowed legs.

What type of deposits are commonly found in scleroderma?

Calcium deposits.

What does SOB stand for in the context of respiratory disorders?

Shortness of breath.

What other symptoms accompany headache in autonomic dysreflexia?

Nasal stuffiness, high blood pressure, and flushed skin above the level of injury.

What symptoms are often present in adults with osteomalacia?

Bone pain and muscle weakness.

What lifestyle factor is commonly associated with Diabetes Mellitus Type 2?

Sedentary lifestyle.

What test is used to diagnose Celiac Disease?

Hydrogen breath test.

What is a notable clinical finding in sarcoidosis?

Progressive lung noncompliance.

What symptoms are associated with lumbar musculoskeletal disorders?

Pain and numbness radiating down the sciatic nerve in the leg.

What electrolyte imbalances are typically seen in acute renal failure?

Elevated potassium (K+) and decreased sodium (Na+) in serum.

What is a key diagnostic finding in neurovascular assessment of an injured area?

Severe pain.

Where can herpes simplex lesions occur?

On the lips, in the nose, and in the genital area.

What phenomenon is associated with scleroderma?

Raynaud’s phenomenon.

What is a typical blood pressure finding in Addison's Disease?

Low blood pressure.

What is a key diagnostic finding for Chronic Bronchitis?

A history of a chronic productive cough lasting more than 3 months for over 2 consecutive years.

What symptom may indicate the presence of hemorrhoids?

Frank blood on the stool.

What is a key diagnostic finding in Ulcerative Colitis?

Daily passage of six or more bloody mucus stools associated with abdominal pain.

What condition is indicated by the term 'Herniated Nucleus Pulposus'?

A condition where the inner gel-like core of a spinal disc protrudes through a tear in the outer layer.

What are the characteristics of lesions associated with Tinea?

Reddened lesions that have a scaly appearance.

What may be heard or felt in the case of musculoskeletal injuries?

Crepitation.

What symptoms are associated with herpes simplex lesions?

Pain and itching.

What is a key diagnostic finding for renal artery stenosis?

Onset of severe hypertension in the absence of glomerular disease, renal failure, or pheochromocytoma.

What history is significant in diagnosing urologic disorders?

History of diabetic nephropathy, hypertension, glomerulonephritis, or autoimmune diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).

What are common symptoms of cervical musculoskeletal disorders?

Pain and numbness in the arm or headaches on the affected side.

What is a common skin appearance in Addison's Disease?

Tanned appearance to skin.

What does the abbreviation 'SOB' stand for in a clinical context?

Shortness of breath.

What is the purpose of the rituals performed by individuals with OCD?

To decrease unpleasant thoughts.

When does discomfort from GERD typically worsen?

When lying down after meals and may occur during the night.

What happens to serum glucose levels in Addison's Disease?

Decreased serum glucose.

What are the characteristic skin findings in persons with AIDS?

Red-to-purple macules, papules, and nodules.

What is a common condition associated with gastrointestinal disorders that involves the stomach pushing through the diaphragm?

Hiatal Hernia.

What is the significance of a skin lesion with a diameter greater than 6 mm?

It may be a sign of skin cancer.

Which tests measure urine hydroxyproline in Paget's Disease?

Pyrilinks and Osteomark.

What are the characteristics of full-thickness burns?

Tough, leathery, or charred skin surface that is brown, tan, red, or black.

What are late symptoms of urologic disorders?

Signs of urinary obstruction, pain in the lumbar or hip area, weight loss, and weakness.

What symptom is associated with weight loss in Crohn's Disease?

Diarrhea.

What is encephalitis?

Inflammation of the brain.

What is the condition characterized by mixed symptoms of hyper- and hypothyroidism?

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis.

What is rhabdomyolysis?

A condition involving the breakdown of muscle tissue that can lead to kidney damage.

What is a specific condition associated with cardiovascular system disorders mentioned in the text?

Ventricular Tachycardia.

Where are flattened lesions of Verruca occasionally found?

On the facial area.

What is a common characteristic of Absence Seizures in children?

The child appears to be daydreaming and has no recall of the event.

What general feeling of discomfort is often reported in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

Malaise.

What age group is usually affected by Absence Seizures?

Children.

What is Diabetes Mellitus Type 1?

An autoimmune condition where the pancreas produces little to no insulin.

What diagnostic finding is associated with Absence Seizures?

Abnormal EEG.

What is the medical term for cellulitis?

Cellulitis (sel-u-li-tis).

What is a common clinical finding in paronychia?

Erythema around the base of the nailbed.

What does urinalysis show in glomerulonephritis?

RBCs, casts, and protein.

What is a key symptom of Guillain-Barré Syndrome?

Paralysis of the legs, ascending to the upper body.

What is retinal detachment?

A condition where the retina separates from the back of the eye, leading to visual disturbances.

What is the medical term for scabies?

Scabies (ska-bez).

What type of voice is often observed in patients with Parkinson's Disease?

Soft and monotonous voice.

What occurs approximately 3 1/2 months after a solid organ, bone marrow, or stem cell transplant?

Damage to the epithelial cells of the skin, GI tract, and hepatocytes due to an immune attack.

What type of chest pain is associated with pericarditis?

Substernal radiating chest pain that increases with deep inspiration or lying flat.

What is a common issue related to saliva in Parkinson's Disease?

Drooling.

What is a common history noted in patients with gastrointestinal disorders?

History of constipation and poor bowel habits.

What symptoms do adults with hyperpituitarism experience?

Arthritis, visual changes, and enlarged hands and feet.

How long can spinal shock last?

From a day to several months.

What are the 4 As associated with mental health disorders?

Autism, avolition, anhedonia, and associative looseness.

What diagnostic tool can reveal findings in Pediculosis Capitis?

A magnifying glass.

What is a characteristic motion observed in myoclonic seizures?

Brief, sudden jerking motion bilaterally.

What cognitive symptoms may indicate depression?

Inability to concentrate.

What are common diagnostic findings in the Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)?

High blood pressure, low serum osmolality, bounding pulse, seizures.

What are common behaviors associated with Borderline Personality Disorder?

Substance abuse, impulsive behavior, and self-destructive behavior for attention.

What is a common diagnostic finding in meningitis related to neck movement?

Nuchal rigidity and pain when moving the legs or flexing the neck.

What does THR stand for in musculoskeletal disorders?

Total Hip Replacement.

What is a key characteristic of Bipolar Disorder?

Cycling through periods of depression and mania.

What additional symptoms may occur with labyrinthitis?

Fever, elevation in WBCs, nausea, and vomiting.

What is azotemia?

A condition characterized by elevated levels of nitrogenous waste products in the blood.

How does the skin appear in full-thickness burns?

The skin does not blanch and is painless.

What are common clinical findings associated with urologic disorders?

Edema, hypertension, hematuria, and arrhythmias.

What is the pronunciation of Sjögren’s Syndrome?

sho-grenz sin-drom.

What is a common causative drug class for urologic disorders?

Cholesterol-lowering agents.

What is histoplasmosis?

A respiratory disorder characterized by cough and fever.

What is the earliest sign of Cystic Fibrosis at birth?

Meconium ileus.

What are common diagnostic findings in myocarditis?

Fever, chest pain, and activity intolerance.

What is a common diagnostic finding in Myasthenia Gravis?

Ptosis of one eyelid.

What are common auscultation findings in respiratory disorders?

Rhonchi and crackles.

What are some diagnostic findings associated with Simple Partial Seizures?

Lip smacking, picking at clothing, or chewing behaviors of which the client is unaware.

What is a key characteristic of Dissociative Amnesia?

Inability to remember stressful events.

What neurological symptom can occur in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

Peripheral neuropathy.

What is the medical term for high blood pressure?

Hypertension.

What does a decreased O2 saturation indicate in the context of respiratory disorders?

It indicates potential respiratory distress or impairment.

What is another name for Simple Partial Seizures?

Focal seizures.

What is pleural effusion?

An accumulation of fluid in the pleural space.

What is a positive Homans’ sign indicative of?

It is a diagnostic finding associated with Deep Vein Thrombosis.

What is the medical term for Trigeminal Neuralgia?

Tri-jem-in-al nu-ral-je-a.

What does an ABG show in respiratory acidosis?

pH of less than 7.45, P CO2 of greater than 45 mm Hg, and HCO3 within range or rising to compensate.

What is a common choice faced by patients with Buerger’s Disease?

The choice between continuing to smoke or losing their legs.

What is a common symptom of Pediculosis Capitis?

Itching of the scalp.

What is the medical term for the condition characterized by symptoms like headache and high blood pressure in spinal cord injuries?

Autonomic Dysreflexia.

What is a key diagnostic finding in Diabetes Mellitus Type 2?

Elevated serum glucose levels.

What does OCD stand for?

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.

What are the characteristics of a skin lesion that may indicate skin cancer?

Asymmetry, irregular borders, color changes, and a diameter greater than 6 mm.

What can be observed on the hair shaft in cases of Pediculosis Capitis?

White or translucent eggs adhered to the hair shaft near the skin.

What causes urgency and frequency in urologic disorders?

Autonomic and structural anomalies of the bladder.

What is a common type of injury associated with musculoskeletal disorders?

Fracture.

What are the exclusions when diagnosing renal artery stenosis?

Glomerular disease, renal failure, or pheochromocytoma.

What laboratory findings are elevated in Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Elevated ESR; presence of RF and CCP antibodies.

What does Atrial Fibrillation cause in terms of heart rhythm?

Irregular R-R intervals.

What is a key diagnostic finding for appendicitis?

Rebound tenderness at McBurney point.

What does turbid CSF indicate in the context of meningitis?

It indicates the presence of infection or inflammation.

What are the characteristic skin findings in psoriasis?

Patches of papules or plaques with silvery scale and erythematous underlying skin.

What characteristic appearance does the scrotum have in cases of epididymitis?

The scrotum is erythematous.

What may be impaired in urologic disorders?

Urine outflow.

What is the medical term for psoriasis?

Psoriasis (so-ri-a-sis).

What components are replaced during a Total Knee Replacement?

The femoral and tibial ends of the knee and the knee cap by a button.

What is the pronunciation of influenza?

in-floo-en-za.

What type of disease is Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis?

A degenerative neuromuscular disease.

What is a common characteristic of contact dermatitis?

Patterned skin eruption after contact with an irritant or allergen.

What is a significant symptom of Nephrotic Syndrome?

Massive edema.

What type of event is often associated with PTSD?

A traumatic event.

What are common symptoms of Ménière’s Disease?

Ear fullness, tinnitus, and vertigo.

What weight change is associated with lung cancer?

Weight loss.

What is Diabetes Mellitus Type 2?

A condition characterized by insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency.

What additional symptoms may occur with Ménière’s Disease?

Sweating, nausea, and vomiting.

What are the classic symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus Type 1?

Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia.

What does ICP stand for in the context of cerebral aneurysms?

Increased intracranial pressure.

What additional symptoms may accompany vision loss in Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma?

Mild aching in the eyes or headaches.

What is glomerulonephritis?

A condition characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys.

What are common diagnostic findings in Alzheimer's Disease?

Short-term memory loss, forgetfulness, confusion, and inability to recognize loved ones or self.

What is the medical term for Guillain-Barré Syndrome?

Guillain-Barré Syndrome (ge-yan ba-ra sin-drom).

What serious condition can result from diabetic retinopathy?

Retinal detachment.

What are common diagnostic findings in Urologic Disorders related to Polycystic Kidney Disease?

Hypertension, headaches, and hematuria.

What symptom may indicate relief in gastrointestinal pain?

Pain relieved by antacids.

What nickname is associated with Chronic Bronchitis?

The 'blue bloater.'

What is ascites?

Accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity.

What is chronic renal failure?

A condition where the kidneys lose their ability to function over time.

In which demographic is loss of bone density primarily observed?

Females who weigh less than 140 lb at menopause.

What type of pain is associated with pancreatitis?

Severe midline abdominal pain that radiates to the flank, spine, and back.

What is the threshold for T-helper (CD4) cells in immune disorders?

Less than 500 cells/mm³.

What color changes may occur in the legs due to Peripheral Arterial Disease?

Color changes, hair loss, and dry, flaky skin.

What is a potential consequence of low serum osmolality in SIADH?

Seizures.

What does the mnemonic ABONE stand for?

A = age, B = bulk, ONE = one never on estrogen.

Is rheumatoid arthritis present in patients with Sjögren’s Syndrome?

No, it is noted in the absence of rheumatoid arthritis.

What color changes in a skin lesion might indicate skin cancer?

Variations in color within the lesion.

What is Hyperpituitarism?

A condition characterized by excessive secretion of hormones from the pituitary gland.

What are common symptoms of pneumonia?

Productive cough, chills, dyspnea, and pain on inspiration.

What triggers the symptoms of Raynaud's Disease?

Contact with cold objects or cold temperatures.

What is a key diagnostic finding in superficial and partial-thickness burns?

Redness of the skin resembling sunburn.

What are common symptoms of Mastoiditis?

Pain behind the ear, fever, and chills.

What are the diagnostic findings associated with cellulitis?

Patchy erythema and edema in the extremities in the absence of DVT.

What are common feelings associated with depression?

Persistent sadness, hopelessness, and feelings of guilt.

What is a common deformity associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Swan neck deformity or ulnar deviation of the metacarpophalangeal joints.

How is Diabetes Mellitus Type 2 pronounced?

di-a-be-tez mel-i-tus type 2.

What serious condition is associated with the symptoms listed?

Gastric cancer.

What is a key symptom of Polycystic Kidney Disease?

Hematuria.

What are common diagnostic findings in Sjögren’s Syndrome?

Blurred vision, thick secretions, decreased sense of taste, dysphagia, xerostomia, and dry nasal membranes.

What condition is characterized by hypertension and headaches?

Polycystic Kidney Disease.

What are some changes in sleep patterns associated with depression?

Insomnia or excessive sleep.

What may be the TSH levels in Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis?

TSH may be normal or elevated.

What is the significance of 'coolness to the touch' in an injured area?

It may indicate compromised blood circulation.

What is the most common type of vision loss associated with aging?

A gradual, age-related loss of central, near, or color vision.

What is the clinical term for the condition involving increased pressure within a muscle compartment?

Compartment Syndrome.

What is the medical term for inflammation of the meninges?

Meningitis.

How is Impetigo pronounced?

(im-pe-ti-go)

What are some common causes of encephalitis?

Viruses (e.g., West Nile virus), parasites, toxins, bacteria, vaccines, or fungi.

What does frothy urine indicate in the context of Nephrotic Syndrome?

The presence of protein and lipids.

What happens to immunoglobulins in Nephrotic Syndrome?

They are lost in urine, leading to decreased levels.

What is the pronunciation of Verruca?

ver-roo-ka.

What symptom might indicate lung cancer?

A persistent cough.

What are the common symptoms of a pneumothorax?

Sudden sharp pain in the chest area and shortness of breath (SOB).

What emotional characteristic may be observed in individuals with ADHD?

Emotional lability.

What are the characteristic lesions associated with scabies?

Grayish brown pruritic threadlike lesions with a black dot at the end.

What is a key diagnostic finding in eczema?

Presence of a vesicular rash that may occur on any skin surface, including under the eyes.

What is the full name of the disorder characterized by demyelination and motor function issues?

Multiple Sclerosis.

What is a common issue in judgment for individuals experiencing mania?

Poor judgment.

Who is likely to develop paronychia?

Persons who frequently have their hands in water, nailbiters, or thumb suckers.

What is the term for the mental disorder characterized by excessive excitement and restlessness?

Mania.

What sensation might a patient with asthma report?

Chest is tight.

At what age group is Acne Vulgaris most commonly observed?

Usually in adolescents, but can occur in adults.

What does SARS stand for?

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome.

What is a characteristic gait observed in Parkinson's Disease?

Shuffling gait.

What happens to circulation in the legs due to Buerger’s Disease?

Thrombi develop, occluding circulation.

What laboratory tests may indicate inflammation or infection in pericarditis?

CBC and ESR.

What initiates the immune attack in Graft-Versus-Host Disease?

The transplanted tissue.

What are common diagnostic findings in leukemia?

Low-grade fever, lymphadenopathy, bleeding tendency, infections, and anemia.

What condition is characterized by bloody mucus stools and abdominal pain?

Ulcerative Colitis.

What shapes can Tinea lesions form?

Circular areas, reddened raised areas, or deep bloodless crevasses between toes.

What are common diagnostic findings in labyrinthitis?

Vertigo and tinnitus.

What are common symptoms of Panic Disorder?

Sudden feeling of impending doom, going crazy, unreality, and fear.

What are common diagnostic findings in Crohn's Disease?

Diarrhea, weight loss, and cobblestone appearance in the small bowel.

What do Weber’s and Rinne’s tests indicate in the context of labyrinthitis?

They indicate conductive or sensorineural hearing loss.

What is an example of a condition associated with urologic disorders?

Overactive Bladder.

What are common diagnostic findings in Peptic Ulcer Disease?

Weight loss and presence of melena.

What is the threshold for T-killer (CD8) cells in immune disorders?

Less than 375 cells/mm³.

What type of behavior is characterized as 'needy' in Borderline Personality Disorder?

Impulsive behavior.

What indicates a change in the CD4/CD8 ratio?

A ratio outside the normal range of 0.9–1.9.

What is the clinical term for Panic Disorder?

Panic Disorder.

What does a measurable viral load indicate in immune disorders?

It suggests active viral replication and potential immunodeficiency.

What is a common clinical finding in peritonitis related to bowel activity?

Decreased bowel sounds.

What is a common consequence of encephalitis?

Increased intracranial pressure (ICP).

What are the characteristics of the growths associated with Verruca?

Pink or light pink growths that cluster on skin structures.

What is a key symptom of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?

Acute anxiety and distress related to flashbacks or memories of a traumatic event.

How long do Tonic-Clonic Seizures typically last?

1–2 minutes.

What are some behaviors associated with Complex Partial Seizures?

Staring, running away, picking at clothing, or standing still with lip smacking.

What may occur during Complex Partial Seizures?

Loss of consciousness.

What is a key characteristic of Generalized Anxiety Disorder?

Excessive worry or anxiety that cannot be controlled.

What laboratory findings indicate Malignant Hyperthermia?

Increased creatinine and BUN levels.

What is a key diagnostic finding in a client with rosacea?

The client's skin appears flushed.

What additional symptom may be evident in otosclerosis?

Tinnitus.

What type of lesions on the head can cause hair loss in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

Round lesions.

What factors exacerbate the condition of rosacea?

Sun exposure, eating or drinking hot foods or liquids, and alcohol.

What impact does Generalized Anxiety Disorder have on daily life?

It causes interference with normal activities of daily living.

What is a key diagnostic finding in Diabetes Mellitus Type 1?

Increased serum glucose levels that persist.

What is the medical term for the condition characterized by flushed skin and sensitivity to certain triggers?

Rosacea.

What pH level indicates Respiratory Alkalosis?

Greater than 7.45.

What is a significant tonometry measurement for diagnosing Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma?

Measurements may exceed 50 mm Hg.

What is the condition called that involves an immune attack initiated by transplanted tissue?

Graft-Versus-Host Disease.

What can head injuries cause in terms of intracranial pressure (ICP)?

They may cause increased ICP and changes in level of consciousness (LOC).

What is a notable ocular symptom of a cerebral aneurysm?

Dilation of the pupil on the affected side.

What imaging technique shows fluid-filled cysts in Polycystic Kidney Disease?

Ultrasound.

What are common symptoms associated with Atrial Fibrillation?

Palpitations, skipping heartbeats, or vertigo.

What are common diagnostic findings in immune disorders?

Lymphadenopathy, night sweats, and presence of rare opportunistic illnesses.

When do symptoms typically occur in Peripheral Arterial Disease?

Late in the disease.

What is the serum potassium level change in Addison's Disease?

Increased serum potassium (K+).

What symptom might indicate a hiatal hernia?

Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing).

What type of seizures are characterized by brief, sudden jerking motions?

Myoclonic seizures.

What is a significant risk behavior in individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder?

Suicide attempts.

What does an increase in bilirubin levels suggest?

Possible liver disease or dysfunction.

What is a common systemic symptom of hepatitis?

Malaise.

What clinical sign is present in cholecystitis?

Murphy’s sign.

What are the levels of T3 and T4 in Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis?

T3 and T4 are low.

What colors can the skin surface of full-thickness burns be?

Brown, tan, red, or black.

What is a key diagnostic finding in Raynaud's Disease?

Vasospasm and vasoconstrictive ischemia of the tips of the nose, fingers, hands, feet, and toes.

What is the purpose of Total Joint Replacement?

To replace damaged joints with metal components.

What is a key diagnostic finding in Tonic-Clonic Seizures?

Presence of an aura followed by loss of consciousness.

What skin changes occur after contact with a thermal source in superficial and partial-thickness burns?

Redness and mottling of the skin with blister formation.

What is a common symptom of a myocardial infarction?

Severe chest pain that refers to the jaw, upper arms, neck, and scapula, described as 'crushing.'

What are common symptoms that develop 2–3 weeks after strep throat in cases of Rheumatic Endocarditis?

Fever, chest pain, dyspnea, cough, arthritic symptoms, chorea, and ankle edema.

What symptoms may a client with prehypertension experience?

The client may have no symptoms or, in severe cases, headache and nosebleed.

What is a key characteristic of mania?

Excessive excitement and restlessness.

What does an MRI reveal in a patient with Multiple Sclerosis?

Demyelination of the white matter of the brain.

What are common symptoms of pyelonephritis?

Chills, fever, tenderness over the costovertebral angle, dysuria.

What is a common auscultation finding in asthma?

Expiratory wheeze.

What is the characteristic appearance of lesions in Herpes Zoster?

Dew drops on a red leaf.

What are common symptoms of Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma?

Unilateral redness and pain in the eye, headache, nausea, and vomiting.

How does head movement affect symptoms in Ménière’s Disease?

Movement of the head makes symptoms worse.

What symptom indicates difficulty in breathing associated with pleural effusion?

Dyspnea.

What diagnostic imaging can show enlargement of the heart muscle or chambers?

MRI.

What is the medical term for inflammation of the skin around the nails?

Paronychia.

What is the HCO3- level in metabolic acidosis?

Less than 22 mEq/L.

What is a key characteristic of Alzheimer's Disease?

Inability to recognize loved ones or self.

What condition is indicated by the findings of low pH, PCO2 in range, and low HCO3-?

Metabolic Acidosis.

What is tinnitus?

A ringing or buzzing noise in the ears.

What diagnostic method is used to assess bone density?

DEXA scan.

What condition is characterized by renal artery stenosis?

Severe hypertension.

What does an EEG show during myoclonic seizures?

Abnormal waveforms.

How does depression affect daily activities?

It leads to decreased interest in daily activities.

What causes pain and stiffness in osteoarthritis?

Wear and tear or obesity.

What are common symptoms of Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis?

Goiter, insomnia, anxiety, muscle and joint aches, weight changes, hair loss, and fertility problems.

What is the medical term for a severe allergic reaction?

Anaphylaxis.

What antibodies are present in Sjögren’s Syndrome?

Antiribonucleoprotein serum antibodies and positive rheumatoid factor.

What feeling might someone with Panic Disorder experience?

A sudden feeling of impending doom.

What symptom indicates high blood pressure in SIADH?

Bounding pulse.

What are two diagnostic findings associated with peritonitis?

Rebound tenderness and rigidity over the abdominal wall.

What bacterial count indicates a Urinary Tract Infection?

>100,000/mL of urine.

What is Hypopituitarism?

A condition where the pituitary gland does not produce sufficient hormones.

What are potential symptoms of a client with cardiovascular system disorders?

The client may be lightheaded, unconscious, and pulseless.

What characterizes the movements during Tonic-Clonic Seizures?

Alternating cycles of stiffness and jerking movements.

What is myocarditis?

An inflammation of the heart muscle.

What BP readings classify a client as prehypertensive?

Greater than 119 mm Hg systolic or greater than 79 mm Hg diastolic.

What does Rinne’s test indicate in otosclerosis?

Bone conduction is normal.

What can cause decreased O2 saturation in patients?

Sepsis, near-drowning, or aspiration of gastric contents.

What is the medical term for inflammation of the mastoid process?

Mastoiditis.

What are common diagnostic findings in pleural effusion?

Dyspnea, diminished breath sounds over the affected area, pleural friction rub.

What are the sudden onset symptoms of a cerebral aneurysm?

Severe headache, increased intracranial pressure (ICP), change in level of consciousness (LOC), motor dysfunction, and pupil dilation on the affected side.

What visual phenomenon may patients with Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma experience?

Seeing halos around objects.

What laboratory finding is often elevated in pyelonephritis?

Elevated WBCs (white blood cells).

What is a key characteristic of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)?

Decreased oxygen saturation.

What is Buerger’s Disease?

A disease affecting young men who smoke, leading to thrombi in the legs that occlude circulation.

What is a common diagnostic finding in pericarditis?

Pericardial friction rub.

What change in consciousness may occur with a cerebral aneurysm?

Change in level of consciousness (LOC).

What is the medical term for hypothyroidism?

Hypothyroidism (hi-po-thi-royd-izm).

What symptom may worsen with sneezing or coughing in Acoustic Neuroma?

Headache.

What is the pH level indicative of respiratory acidosis?

Less than 7.45.

What type of murmur is associated with Aortic Stenosis?

A loud, harsh midsystolic, crescendo–decrescendo murmur.

What is the P CO2 level in Respiratory Alkalosis?

Less than 35 mm Hg.

What type of balance problems can occur with Acoustic Neuroma?

Problems with maintaining equilibrium.

What are common diagnostic findings in respiratory disorders?

Cough and fever.

What is a significant change that may suggest colon cancer?

A change in bowel habits.

What are common diagnostic findings in Nephrotic Syndrome?

Elevated LDL cholesterol and triglycerides, proteinuria, frothy urine, decreased immunoglobulins, and massive edema.

What are the diagnostic findings associated with loss of consciousness in cardiovascular disorders?

No peripheral pulses or blood pressure.

What is a common diagnostic finding in otosclerosis?

Progressive hearing loss, especially with low or soft tones.

What is the full name of ALS?

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis.

What additional symptoms accompany severe chest pain in myocardial infarction?

Shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and sweating.

What inability is associated with Bell's Palsy?

Inability to blink the eye.

How is the chest pain in myocardial infarction typically described?

As 'crushing.'

What are common diagnostic findings in bronchiectasis?

Dyspnea, cyanosis, and expectoration of large amounts of foul-smelling mucus.

What are common clinical findings in hypothyroidism?

Lethargy, mental slowness, and heavy menstrual periods in women.

What age groups can be affected by Attention Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

Both children and adults.

What are the visible characteristics of varicose veins?

Tortuous, bulging veins.

What type of cough is associated with asthma?

Nonproductive cough.

What is the range of PCO2 in metabolic acidosis?

35–45 mm Hg or decreasing to compensate.

What is the medical term for pneumothorax?

Nu-mo-tho-raks.

When does the chest pain associated with Angina Pectoris typically occur?

Usually associated with activity, cold weather exercise, or smoking.

What symptom is commonly associated with scabies lesions?

Pruritus (itching).

What does unilateral edema indicate in the context of Deep Vein Thrombosis?

It suggests the presence of a thrombus in a deep vein.

What is the medical term for Acne Vulgaris?

Acne Vulgaris (ak-ne vul-ga-ris).

What are common symptoms of respiratory disorders?

Fatigue, weight loss, anorexia, night sweats, low-grade fever, productive cough, hemoptysis, chest pain, anxiety.

What are rhonchi and crackles indicative of?

They are indicative of respiratory disorders.

What is the range of PCO2 in Metabolic Alkalosis?

35–45 mm Hg or rising to compensate.

What can worsen respiratory symptoms after exposure to the coronavirus?

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS).

What is the medical term for hyperthyroidism?

Hyperthyroidism (hi-per-thi-royd-izm).

Which gene mutation is associated with Huntington's Disease?

Mutation of the IT15 gene.

What is lymphadenopathy?

Swelling of lymph nodes, often associated with infections or malignancies like leukemia.

What is a critical condition characterized by irregular heartbeats that can lead to loss of consciousness?

Ventricular Fibrillation.

When do symptoms of Mastoiditis typically occur?

Usually after an ear or sinus infection.

What phenomenon, characterized by color changes in fingers and toes, is associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

Raynaud’s phenomenon.

Is consciousness lost during Simple Partial Seizures?

No, consciousness is not lost.

What is another name for Complex Partial Seizures?

Psychomotor seizures.

What type of delusions are associated with mania?

Delusions of grandeur.

How long must symptoms occur to diagnose Generalized Anxiety Disorder?

At least 6 months.

What is a notable characteristic of urine in cases of Malignant Hyperthermia?

Urine is brown in color.

What is a common facial expression associated with Parkinson's Disease?

Mask-like facial expression.

What is a common difficulty experienced by individuals with cataracts?

Difficulty driving at night due to excessive glare.

What is pyelonephritis?

A type of kidney infection.

What are common clinical findings in Deep Vein Thrombosis?

Redness or warmth in an area of pain in the leg, and unilateral edema in the arm or leg.

What happens to the external auditory canal in Otitis Externa?

The canal may swell shut.

What does polyuria refer to?

Excessive urination.

What does the term 'cerebrovascular accident' refer to?

A medical condition involving impaired blood flow to the brain, often resulting in neurological deficits.

What are common symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

Restlessness, irritability, and heat intolerance.

What findings are observed during an ophthalmoscopic examination in diabetic retinopathy?

Cotton-wool spots and tortuous, dilated vessels.

What does polydipsia refer to?

Excessive thirst.

What are the two severe skin conditions associated with drug reactions?

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis.

What does polyphagia refer to?

Excessive hunger.

What is the pronunciation of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome?

ste -venz- jon -son sin -drom.

What might a male experience alongside dysuria in urologic disorders?

Discharge from the urethra.

What is a significant risk factor for urologic disorders?

History of unprotected sex.

What are the clinical findings associated with Malignant Hyperthermia?

Temperature increase and muscle rigidity following exposure to anesthetics.

What does Weber’s test show in a patient with otosclerosis?

Lateralization to the most affected ear.

What does ARDS stand for?

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome.

What is a common name for Otitis Externa?

Swimmer's ear.

What laboratory findings may be observed in bronchiectasis?

Decreased RBC count and weight loss.

When does atypical chest pain occur in cardiomyopathy?

With rest and not relieved with nitrates.

What symptom is characterized by pain in the external auditory canal?

Otitis Externa.

What type of lesions are associated with Herpes Zoster?

Painful vesicular lesions.

How can Guillain-Barré Syndrome affect breathing?

It may affect the ability to breathe on one’s own.

What are common symptoms of an aortic aneurysm?

Abdominal pain, nausea, or fullness relieved by position change.

What symptom may indicate cardiovascular system disorders in a client with risk factors?

Shortness of breath with activity.

What does edema of the ankles indicate in the context of cardiovascular disorders?

It may indicate cardiomyopathy.

What is a rapid onset symptom of asthma?

Difficult expiration.

What symptoms may indicate a reaction to sulfa drugs, antibiotics, or antiepileptics?

Flu-like symptoms or macular rash.

What is the TSH level in hyperthyroidism?

Decreased (↓ TSH).

How is a venous stasis ulcer described?

As 'wet' and exuding a large amount of serous fluid.

What is a specific respiratory disorder associated with the provided symptoms?

Tuberculosis (TB).

What is hemoptysis?

Coughing up blood, which can be a symptom of Pulmonary Embolism.

What is a common diagnostic finding in skull fractures?

Crepitus.

What does a productive cough indicate?

The presence of mucus or phlegm in the respiratory tract.

What symptom is commonly reported by women with urologic disorders?

Pelvic pain.

What can a depressed area in the skull signify?

It may signify severe head trauma or a skull fracture.

What are visual abnormalities associated with retinal detachment?

Flashing lights or sparks, floaters, loss of peripheral vision, and eventual loss of vision.

What are common symptoms of cardiomyopathy?

Dyspnea, fatigue, edema of the ankles, and possible atypical chest pain.

How long after strep throat do symptoms of Rheumatic Endocarditis typically appear?

2–3 weeks.

What does the visual field experience during retinal detachment?

It may feel like a curtain falling over the visual field.

What is a key characteristic of Complex Partial Seizures?

Socially awkward behavior.

What are some diagnostic findings associated with Nervous System Disorders?

Inability to form words, drooping of the face, or inability to see out of one eye.

What is a common symptom of Angina Pectoris?

Chest pain referred to the jaw, neck, upper arms, and scapulae.

What abnormal lung sounds are associated with bronchiectasis?

Rhonchi heard on auscultation.

What is another term for a cerebrovascular accident?

Stroke.

What are common diagnostic findings in respiratory disorders related to coronavirus exposure?

Cough, rhonchi, crackles, and worsening respiratory symptoms.

What are the types of head injuries mentioned?

Arterial or venous in nature.

Where do the lesions of Herpes Zoster typically occur?

Unilaterally along sensory nerve pathways.

What are common diagnostic findings in patients with severe osteoporosis?

Pathologic fractures.

How is pain elicited in cases of Otitis Externa?

By applying pressure on the tragus.

What are some risk factors for heart disease?

History of elevated blood lipids, smoking, poor dietary habits, sedentary lifestyle, and obesity.

What is the P CO2 level in respiratory acidosis?

Greater than 45 mm Hg.

Which cells are primarily affected in Graft-Versus-Host Disease?

Epithelial cells of the skin, GI tract, and hepatocytes.

What are common symptoms of Aortic Stenosis?

Low blood pressure, fatigue, dizziness, and chest pain.

Where do venous stasis ulcers typically occur?

On the lower extremities.

What are the two types of hearing loss mentioned?

Conductive and Sensorineural Hearing Loss.

What are arrhythmias?

Irregular heartbeats that can occur during cardiogenic shock.

What drives the hypoxic respiratory drive in emphysema patients?

Hypoxia.

What triggers the pain in Trigeminal Neuralgia?

Movement of the musculature of the face, a touch, or cool breeze.

Where on the body are scabies lesions commonly found?

Between fingers, toes, axillae, groin, buttocks, and abdominal areas.

What laboratory findings are associated with hypothyroidism?

Increased TSH and decreased T3 and T4 levels.

What are common clinical findings of Acne Vulgaris?

Whiteheads, blackheads, or cysts on the face, neck, upper back, chest, and shoulders.

What discomfort do varicose veins cause?

Discomfort in the leg.

What visual changes may occur in individuals with poorly controlled diabetes?

Gradual central visual field changes that can progress to flashing lights and cessation of vision.

What is the tonometry measurement indicative of Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma?

20 mm Hg.

How do varicose veins affect body image?

They cause changes in body image.

What condition is indicated by excessive glare while driving at night?

Cataracts.

What bleeding tendency is associated with Multiple Myeloma?

Increased bleeding tendency.

What is a pleural friction rub?

A sound produced by the rubbing of inflamed pleural layers.

What is the medical term for diabetic eye disease?

Diabetic Retinopathy.

What symptom is characterized by difficulty in breathing?

Dyspnea.

What type of behavior progresses alongside the physical symptoms in Huntington's Disease?

Progressive psychotic behavior.

What is the pronunciation of Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

toks -ik ep -i- der -mal ne- krol -i-sis.

What protein is affected by the mutation in Huntington's Disease?

Huntingtin protein.

What pH level indicates metabolic acidosis?

Less than 7.35.

What clinical finding may be present in the affected lung during a pneumothorax?

Absent breath sounds.

What comorbid illness is often associated with eczema?

Asthma.

What are common diagnostic findings associated with Acoustic Neuroma?

Hearing loss, headache, facial numbness, balance problems, and tinnitus.

What visual phenomenon might a client with Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma experience?

Seeing halos in the visual field around lights.

How is eczema pronounced?

ek-ze-ma.

What is observed during an ophthalmologic examination of a person with cataracts?

Opacity of the lens.

What is a common symptom of difficulty swallowing in Parkinson's Disease?

Dysphagia.

What are the rapid onset symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism?

Dyspnea, chest pain, anxiety, feeling of impending doom, and hemoptysis.

What usually alleviates the chest pain in Angina Pectoris?

Rest.

What is a key indicator of respiratory distress in asthma patients?

↓ O2 saturation.

What condition is characterized by the sudden onset of low BP and poor perfusion after an MI?

Cardiogenic Shock.

What infections are commonly seen in patients with Multiple Myeloma?

Infections due to compromised immune function.

What is tachycardia?

A condition of having a fast heart rate, often seen in cardiogenic shock.

What physical sign may indicate fluid overload in Congestive Heart Failure?

Jugular vein distention.

What organ enlargement can occur due to Congestive Heart Failure?

Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly.

What is the medical term for a skull fracture?

Skull fracture (skul frak-chur).

What is a bleeding tendency in the context of leukemia?

Increased susceptibility to bleeding due to low platelet counts.

What does diminished breath sounds over the affected area indicate?

Possible presence of pleural effusion.

What is the definition of hearing loss in the context of sensory disorders?

Acquired or congenital inability to discriminate sound, resulting in impaired hearing.

What does an ABG show in cases of Metabolic Alkalosis?

pH greater than 7.45, PCO2 in the range of 35–45 mm Hg or rising to compensate, and HCO3 of greater than 26 mEq/L.

What is a key characteristic of a venous stasis ulcer?

It occurs on the lower extremities in the presence of edema and brown, leathery skin.

How is Alzheimer's Disease pronounced?

Alts-hi-merz di-zez.

What are common physical findings in emphysema?

Barrel or pigeon chest.

What condition is associated with the risk factors mentioned?

Coronary Artery Disease.

What type of injury is characterized by crepitus, CSF leak, or a depressed area in the skull?

Severe head trauma resulting in an open-skull injury.

At what age range do symptoms of Multiple Myeloma typically affect individuals?

Fifth to seventh decades of life.

What skin condition is associated with venous stasis ulcers?

Brown, leathery skin.

What is Huntington's Disease characterized by?

Jerking movements and progressive psychotic behavior.

What is the significance of low-grade fever in leukemia?

It may indicate an underlying infection or the body's response to the disease.

What motor dysfunction might be observed in a patient with a cerebral aneurysm?

Motor dysfunction on the affected side.

What physical finding may indicate an aortic aneurysm?

A pulsating mass in the abdomen.

Who is primarily affected by Buerger’s Disease?

Young men who smoke.

What is the pH level indicative of Metabolic Alkalosis?

Greater than 7.45.

What history may be relevant in diagnosing hearing loss?

History of ototoxic drug use.

What are common clinical findings in Congestive Heart Failure?

Edema in the extremities, shortness of breath, crackles, and pleural effusion.

Which tests are used to assess hearing loss?

Weber’s and Rinne’s tests.

What is the HCO3 level in Metabolic Alkalosis?

Greater than 26 mEq/L.

What is the medical term for Pulmonary Embolism?

Pulmonary Embolism (pul-mo-ne-re em-bo-lizm).

What type of anemia is often seen in leukemia patients?

A type of anemia caused by a decrease in red blood cell production.

What are the sudden onset symptoms following a myocardial infarction (MI)?

Low blood pressure, poor perfusion, tachycardia, and arrhythmias.

What does elevated BNP indicate in cardiovascular disorders?

It is a diagnostic marker often associated with heart failure.

Where is the Aortic Stenosis murmur heard loudest?

At the second right intercostal space (ICS).

What is the HCO3- range in Respiratory Alkalosis?

22–26 mEq/L or decreasing to compensate.

What are the levels of T3 and T4 in hyperthyroidism?

Increased (↑ T3 and T4).

What is a common symptom of urologic disorders in males?

Dysuria or blood in the urine or ejaculate.

What is hemoptysis?

Coughing up blood.

What does CSF leak indicate in the context of head trauma?

It may indicate a skull fracture.

What is a common fever type associated with respiratory disorders?

Low-grade fever.

How does the pain from pericarditis change with body position?

It is somewhat relieved by sitting upright and leaning forward.

What feeling might accompany the symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism?

A feeling of impending doom.

What are the initial symptoms of Huntington's Disease?

Onset of jerking movements of the upper extremities, face, and neck.

What condition is indicated by a pH greater than 7.45 and low P CO2?

Respiratory Alkalosis.

Where does the Aortic Stenosis murmur radiate?

To the side of the neck and down the left sternal border or apex.

What does an abnormal result in Weber’s and Rinne’s tests indicate?

Impaired hearing.

What type of respiratory acidosis is associated with emphysema?

Chronic respiratory acidosis.

What technique is used to detect a bruit associated with an aortic aneurysm?

Auscultation with the bell of the stethoscope adjacent to the umbilicus.

How can the onset of increased ICP from head injuries vary?

It can be rapid, insidious, chronic, or become fatal.

What happens to HCO3 in respiratory acidosis?

It remains within range or rises to compensate.

What are the two types of hematomas associated with head injuries?

Epidural and subdural hematoma.

What does poor perfusion indicate in the context of cardiovascular disorders?

Inadequate blood flow to tissues, often leading to organ dysfunction.

What type of anemia is associated with Multiple Myeloma?

Anemia affecting patients.

What is the medical term for inflammation of the urethra?

Urethritis.

What is a key characteristic of the headache associated with Acoustic Neuroma?

It may wake the client.

What term is used to describe a patient with emphysema who has a pink complexion?

The 'pink puffer.'

What is the typical level of Pa CO2 in patients with emphysema?

Increased (↑ Pa CO2).

What does a bone marrow biopsy reveal in leukemia?

Many immature white blood cells (WBCs).

What is a common cause of the symptoms described in a sprain?

A) Infection

B) Overuse

C) Recent injury

D) Arthritis

E) Tumor

Which type of bacteria is associated with the development of Rheumatic Endocarditis?

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Escherichia coli

C) Beta-hemolytic streptococci

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

E) Clostridium difficile

Which joint is most commonly associated with the findings of pain, swelling, and heat in a sprain?

A) Wrist

B) Knee

C) Elbow

D) Ankle

E) Shoulder

What is azotemia?

A) A condition of low blood pressure

B) A buildup of nitrogenous waste in the blood

C) A type of kidney stone

D) A decrease in urine output

E) A form of kidney infection

What is a common symptom of pneumonia?

A) Fever

B) Productive cough

C) Skin rash

D) Joint pain

E) Nausea

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Rheumatic Endocarditis?

A) Chorea

B) Ankle edema

C) Fever

D) Skin rash

E) Dyspnea

Which of the following is a key diagnostic finding for pneumonia?

A) Elevated blood pressure

B) Productive cough

C) Increased appetite

D) Weight loss

E) Dry skin

What is the primary symptom that indicates a sprain?

A) Severe headache

B) Joint stiffness

C) Pain around the joint

D) Muscle weakness

E) Skin discoloration

What is a common appearance of lesions associated with Tinea?

A) Smooth and shiny

B) Reddened and scaly

C) Dark and crusty

D) Yellow and flaky

E) Clear and blistered

What is the appearance of the crusts in impetigo?

A) Green and slimy

B) White and flaky

C) Honey-colored

D) Dark brown and scabby

E) Transparent and watery

What does elevated creatinine and BUN indicate?

A) Normal kidney function

B) Liver dysfunction

C) Impaired kidney function

D) Dehydration

E) Heart failure

What is a common name for Otitis Externa?

A) Ear infection

B) Swimmer's ear

C) Earwax buildup

D) Tinnitus

E) Meniere's disease

What is a common symptom of myocarditis?

A) Nausea

B) Fever

C) Skin rash

D) Headache

E) Joint pain

Which of the following is NOT a typical location for impetigo lesions?

A) Lips

B) Nose

C) Hands

D) Perineum

E) Scalp

What symptom might indicate pain associated with pneumonia?

A) Pain on inspiration

B) Pain in the legs

C) Pain in the abdomen

D) Pain during urination

E) Pain in the back

What symptom is typically associated with Otitis Externa?

A) Hearing loss

B) Pain in the external auditory canal

C) Ringing in the ears

D) Dizziness

E) Nasal congestion

What is a key diagnostic finding in Malignant Hyperthermia?

A) Decreased heart rate

B) Temperature increase and muscle rigidity

C) Low blood pressure

D) Increased appetite

E) Nausea and vomiting

What triggers the pain in Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A) Loud noises

B) Movement of facial musculature

C) Eating hot foods

D) Bright lights

E) Physical exertion

In which age group is impetigo most commonly found?

A) Infants only

B) Adults

C) Elderly

D) Usually in children

E) Teenagers

What does an otoscopic examination reveal in cases of Otitis Media?

A) Clear tympanic membrane

B) Reddish and swollen tympanic membrane

C) Perforated tympanic membrane

D) Normal ear structure

E) Fluid-filled middle ear

What is the earliest sign of Cystic Fibrosis at birth?

A) Respiratory distress

B) Meconium ileus

C) Gastrointestinal bleeding

D) Reproductive dysfunction

E) Skin rash

What laboratory finding is commonly elevated in cases of appendicitis?

A) Hemoglobin

B) Platelets

C) WBC count

D) Glucose

E) Creatinine

What are common diagnostic findings for respiratory disorders like histoplasmosis?

A) Nausea and vomiting

B) Cough and fever

C) Skin rash and itching

D) Joint pain and swelling

E) Headache and dizziness

What is histoplasmosis?

A) A type of skin infection

B) A respiratory disorder caused by a fungus

C) A viral infection affecting the liver

D) A bacterial infection of the stomach

E) A neurological disorder

What is another name for Herpes Zoster?

A) Chickenpox

B) Shingles

C) Cold sores

D) Ringworm

E) Psoriasis

What is the clinical significance of the appearance of Tinea lesions?

A) They indicate a viral infection

B) They are a sign of an allergic reaction

C) They suggest a fungal infection

D) They are indicative of a bacterial infection

E) They represent a skin cancer

What does dyspnea refer to in the context of pneumonia?

A) A type of cough

B) Difficulty breathing

C) Chest pain

D) Fever

E) Excessive sweating

What is the most common type of vision loss associated with aging?

A) Sudden loss of peripheral vision

B) Gradual loss of central, near, or color vision

C) Complete blindness

D) Loss of night vision

E) Flashes of light in vision

Which type of vision is primarily affected by macular degeneration?

A) Peripheral vision

B) Night vision

C) Central vision

D) Color vision

E) All types of vision

Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with myocarditis?

A) Chest pain

B) Activity intolerance

C) Fever

D) Blurred vision

E) Fatigue

What are common diagnostic findings associated with influenza?

A) Fever and myalgia

B) Skin rash and itching

C) Joint pain and swelling

D) Headache and dizziness

E) Nausea and vomiting

What symptoms may a client with hypertension experience?

A) Severe fatigue and dizziness

B) No symptoms or headache and nosebleed

C) Constant coughing and wheezing

D) Nausea and vomiting

E) Blurred vision and chest pain

What are common diagnostic findings associated with a sprain?

A) Numbness and tingling

B) Pain, swelling, and heat around the joint

C) Fever and chills

D) Skin rash and itching

E) Loss of appetite

Where might Tinea lesions commonly appear between the toes?

A) Blisters

B) Crevasses that can be deep and bloodless

C) Smooth patches

D) Red bumps

E) Yellow crusts

What is the medical term for Tinea?

A) Eczema

B) Psoriasis

C) Ringworm

D) Dermatitis

E) Acne

How long after strep throat do symptoms of Rheumatic Endocarditis typically appear?

A) 1 week

B) 2–3 weeks

C) 4–5 weeks

D) 6–8 weeks

E) Immediately after infection

What is oliguria?

A) Increased urine output

B) Normal urine output

C) Decreased urine output

D) Complete absence of urine

E) Urine output with blood

Which of the following symptoms is associated with ataxia in alcoholism?

A) Increased energy

B) Impaired coordination

C) Heightened alertness

D) Enhanced memory

E) Improved focus

What is a key characteristic of Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A) Bilateral facial pain

B) Severe knife-like facial pain unilaterally

C) Dull, throbbing headache

D) Pain only in the neck

E) Numbness in the arms

What is a common systemic symptom of Hepatitis?

A) Fever

B) Cough

C) Rash

D) Chest pain

E) Numbness

What are common symptoms of Otitis Media?

A) Nausea and vomiting

B) Fever and pain in the ear

C) Headaches and dizziness

D) Cough and sore throat

E) Skin rash and itching

What might you observe in bowel sounds during peritonitis?

A) Increased bowel sounds

B) Normal bowel sounds

C) Decreased bowel sounds

D) Hyperactive bowel sounds

E) Absent bowel sounds

What are the later complications of Cystic Fibrosis?

A) Only respiratory issues

B) Only gastrointestinal issues

C) Respiratory, gastrointestinal, and reproductive dysfunction

D) Neurological issues

E) Musculoskeletal issues

What might shaking indicate in an abstinent individual with a history of alcoholism?

A) Increased relaxation

B) Withdrawal symptoms

C) Enhanced mood

D) Improved physical health

E) Heightened confidence

What blood pressure readings classify a client as prehypertensive?

A) Greater than 139 mm Hg systolic or greater than 89 mm Hg diastolic

B) Greater than 119 mm Hg systolic or greater than 79 mm Hg diastolic

C) Greater than 100 mm Hg systolic or greater than 60 mm Hg diastolic

D) Greater than 160 mm Hg systolic or greater than 100 mm Hg diastolic

E) Greater than 120 mm Hg systolic or greater than 80 mm Hg diastolic

Which of the following best describes the nature of pain in Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A) Constant and dull

B) Sharp and intermittent

C) Mild and throbbing

D) Aching and persistent

E) Knife-like and severe

What is a common symptom of Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?

A) Constant pain in the legs

B) Intermittent claudication in the calves

C) Swelling in the feet

D) Numbness in the fingers

E) Chest pain during rest

Which of the following describes the shape of lesions that may form due to Tinea?

A) Linear and straight

B) Circular or raised areas

C) Triangular and flat

D) Irregular and jagged

E) Oval and smooth

What can precipitate acute renal failure?

A) High protein diet

B) Severe hypotension

C) Excessive hydration

D) Regular exercise

E) Low sodium intake

What is a common respiratory symptom associated with Rheumatic Endocarditis?

A) Sneezing

B) Cough

C) Nasal congestion

D) Sore throat

E) Wheezing

Which of the following is NOT a dysfunction associated with Cystic Fibrosis?

A) Respiratory dysfunction

B) Gastrointestinal dysfunction

C) Reproductive dysfunction

D) Cardiovascular dysfunction

E) None of the above

What happens to the external auditory canal in cases of Otitis Externa?

A) It becomes inflamed and may swell shut

B) It becomes dry and flaky

C) It produces excessive earwax

D) It becomes permanently enlarged

E) It develops a fungal infection

What type of affect might be observed in someone with alcoholism?

A) Appropriate affect

B) Inappropriate affect

C) Neutral affect

D) Elevated affect

E) Flat affect

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Otitis Externa?

A) Pain in the external auditory canal

B) Swelling of the canal

C) Presence of pus

D) Hearing loss

E) Itching in the ear

Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with influenza?

A) Respiratory symptoms

B) Gastrointestinal symptoms

C) Fever

D) Severe abdominal pain

E) Myalgia

What is the medical term for high blood pressure?

A) Hypotension

B) Hypertension

C) Prehypertension

D) Ischemia

E) Arrhythmia

What is a common characteristic of impetigo?

A) Red, scaly patches on the skin

B) Honey-colored crusts on the lips, mouth, nose, hands, or perineum

C) Blisters filled with clear fluid

D) Dark spots on the skin

E) Thickened nails

What happens to the vesicles associated with impetigo?

A) They remain intact indefinitely

B) They turn into warts

C) They rupture easily

D) They become hard and crusty without rupture

E) They disappear without treatment

Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with pneumonia?

A) Chills

B) Dyspnea

C) Pain on inspiration

D) Headache

E) Productive cough

Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of psoriasis?

A) Silvery scales

B) Erythematous skin

C) Blisters

D) Papules or plaques

E) Chronic skin condition

What condition is associated with the gradual loss of vision mentioned in the clue?

A) Glaucoma

B) Cataracts

C) Macular Degeneration

D) Retinal Detachment

E) Diabetic Retinopathy

What laboratory findings are typically elevated in Hepatitis?

A) Elevated white blood cell count

B) Elevated ALT and AST levels

C) Elevated blood glucose levels

D) Elevated cholesterol levels

E) Elevated creatinine levels

What does Weber’s test show in a patient with otosclerosis?

A) Lateralization to the unaffected ear

B) No lateralization

C) Lateralization to the most affected ear

D) Equal hearing in both ears

E) Lateralization to the right ear only

Which of the following is a self-destructive behavior noted in individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder?

A) Regular exercise

B) Suicide attempts for attention

C) Healthy eating habits

D) Long-term planning

E) Financial stability

What does rapid cycling in Bipolar Disorder indicate?

A) A mild form of the disorder

B) A more severe illness

C) A complete recovery

D) A lack of episodes

E) A preference for depressive episodes

What does the underlying skin look like in psoriasis?

A) Smooth and unblemished

B) Erythematous

C) Dark and leathery

D) Flaky and dry

E) Yellow and scaly

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Otitis Media?

A) Ear pain

B) Fever

C) Hearing loss

D) Skin rash

E) Swelling of the tympanic membrane

What does slurred speech indicate in the context of alcoholism?

A) Increased intelligence

B) Impaired cognitive function

C) Enhanced communication skills

D) Improved social interactions

E) Heightened emotional responses

What is a common characteristic of macular degeneration?

A) It occurs suddenly

B) It affects only young individuals

C) It leads to complete blindness

D) It is age-related

E) It is reversible

What is a common symptom associated with lung cancer?

A) Persistent cough

B) Frequent headaches

C) Skin rash

D) Joint pain

E) Abdominal cramps

What is a common characteristic of a herpes simplex lesion?

A) Painful, itchy, vesicular lesion

B) Dry, scaly patches

C) Red, raised bumps

D) Flat, brown spots

E) Thickened, discolored nails

What type of disorder is Borderline Personality Disorder classified as?

A) Mood disorder

B) Anxiety disorder

C) Personality disorder

D) Psychotic disorder

E) Neurodevelopmental disorder

What is the medical term for cataracts?

A) Glaucoma

B) Myopia

C) Astigmatism

D) Cataracts

E) Hyperopia

Which of the following findings is NOT typically associated with lung cancer?

A) Persistent cough

B) Weight loss

C) Increased energy levels

D) History of smoking

E) Shortness of breath

At what age range do individuals typically begin to show clinical findings of Multiple Myeloma?

A) 20-30 years

B) 30-40 years

C) 40-50 years

D) 50-70 years

E) 70-90 years

What is a common symptom of Atrial Fibrillation?

A) Chest pain

B) Palpitations

C) Shortness of breath

D) Nausea

E) Fatigue

What symptoms develop 2–3 weeks after strep throat in cases of Rheumatic Endocarditis?

A) Nausea and vomiting

B) Fever, chest pain, dyspnea, cough, arthritic symptoms, chorea, and ankle edema

C) Headache and dizziness

D) Skin rash and itching

E) Abdominal pain and diarrhea

What is a characteristic clinical finding of psoriasis?

A) Blisters filled with clear fluid

B) Patches of papules or plaques with silvery scale

C) Red, itchy bumps all over the body

D) Dark, thickened skin in folds

E) Yellowing of the skin and eyes

Otitis Media is usually associated with which conditions?

A) Diabetes and hypertension

B) Colds and allergies

C) Asthma and eczema

D) Heart disease and stroke

E) Gastrointestinal disorders

What is a key diagnostic finding for appendicitis?

A) Rebound tenderness at McBurney point

B) Decreased heart rate

C) Elevated blood pressure

D) Increased appetite

E) Normal WBC count

What is a common symptom of cataracts?

A) Difficulty hearing

B) Difficulty driving at night due to excessive glare

C) Loss of taste

D) Numbness in limbs

E) Frequent headaches

What is a common behavior associated with Borderline Personality Disorder?

A) Excessive optimism

B) Impulsive, 'needy' behavior

C) Extreme introversion

D) Consistent self-discipline

E) Avoidance of social situations

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cataracts?

A) Difficulty seeing in bright light

B) Opacity of the lens

C) Sudden vision loss

D) Difficulty driving at night

E) Blurred vision

Which of the following is a clinical finding in myocarditis?

A) High blood pressure

B) Chest pain

C) Weight gain

D) Increased appetite

E) Shortness of breath during sleep

What weight-related symptom may indicate lung cancer?

A) Sudden weight gain

B) Weight loss

C) Stable weight

D) Weight fluctuations

E) Increased appetite

What type of symptoms are associated with herpes simplex?

A) Only fever

B) Painful and itchy lesions

C) Nausea and vomiting

D) Joint pain

E) Hair loss

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of Tuberculosis (TB)?

A) Fatigue

B) Night sweats

C) Increased appetite

D) Hemoptysis

E) Low-grade fever

What is a characteristic appearance of lesions caused by scabies?

A) Red, raised bumps

B) Grayish brown pruritic threadlike lesions with a black dot at the end

C) Yellow crusty patches

D) White, flaky skin

E) Blisters filled with clear fluid

What is a common behavior observed during Complex Partial Seizures?

A) Excessive talking

B) Staring

C) Laughing uncontrollably

D) Rapid eye movement

E) Sudden physical strength

What is the typical tonometry measurement for Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma?

A) 10 mm Hg

B) 15 mm Hg

C) 20 mm Hg

D) 25 mm Hg

E) 30 mm Hg

Which of the following findings would most likely accompany a diagnosis of Deep Vein Thrombosis?

A) Increased heart rate

B) Redness or warmth in the affected area

C) Elevated blood pressure

D) Shortness of breath

E) Nausea

What are common serum electrolyte changes in acute renal failure?

A) Elevated Na+ and decreased K+

B) Decreased Na+ and elevated K+

C) Normal Na+ and K+

D) Elevated Na+ and K+

E) Decreased Na+ and K+

What is the primary diagnostic finding in Otitis Media?

A) Normal hearing test results

B) Swollen lymph nodes

C) Reddened and swollen tympanic membrane

D) Fluid in the lungs

E) Elevated blood pressure

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of Hepatitis?

A) Lethargy

B) Jaundice

C) Anorexia

D) High blood pressure

E) Right upper quadrant pain

What does Rinne’s test indicate in a patient with otosclerosis?

A) Bone conduction is impaired

B) Air conduction is impaired

C) Bone conduction is normal

D) Both air and bone conduction are impaired

E) Hearing is normal

What is Buerger’s Disease primarily associated with?

A) High cholesterol levels

B) Diabetes

C) Smoking in young men

D) Obesity

E) Hypertension

Which symptom may be evident in patients with otosclerosis?

A) Severe vertigo

B) Tinnitus

C) Sudden deafness

D) Ear infections

E) Nasal congestion

What is a common diagnostic finding in patients with Multiple Myeloma?

A) Pathologic fractures from severe osteoporosis

B) Increased muscle mass

C) Elevated blood pressure

D) Hyperactivity

E) Decreased heart rate

How many episodes per year define rapid cycling in Bipolar Disorder?

A) Two

B) Three

C) Four

D) Five

E) Six

Which demographic is most commonly affected by Buerger’s Disease?

A) Elderly women

B) Young men who smoke

C) Children

D) Middle-aged individuals

E) Pregnant women

What is a potential consequence of the impulsive behavior seen in Borderline Personality Disorder?

A) Improved social skills

B) Increased job stability

C) Substance abuse

D) Enhanced emotional regulation

E) Long-term friendships

What are common clinical findings associated with sarcoidosis?

A) Fever and myalgia

B) Nausea and vomiting

C) Joint pain and swelling

D) Skin rash and itching

E) Headache and dizziness

When do symptoms of Peripheral Arterial Disease typically occur?

A) Early in the disease

B) After a heart attack

C) Late in the disease

D) Only during sleep

E) Immediately after exercise

What type of disorder is Posttraumatic Stress Disorder classified as?

A) Mood disorder

B) Anxiety disorder

C) Personality disorder

D) Psychotic disorder

E) Neurodevelopmental disorder

What is a potential final visual experience in retinal detachment?

A) Enhanced clarity of vision

B) Complete darkness

C) A curtain falling over the visual field

D) A rainbow effect

E) Double vision

Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with Acoustic Neuroma?

A) Facial numbness

B) Hearing loss

C) Skin rash

D) Balance problems

E) Tinnitus

What is a common diagnostic finding in peritonitis?

A) Increased bowel sounds

B) Rebound tenderness and rigidity over the abdominal wall

C) Elevated blood pressure

D) Decreased heart rate

E) Normal abdominal wall sensitivity

What is a common diagnostic finding in individuals with alcoholism?

A) Elevated blood pressure

B) Smell of alcohol on breath

C) Rapid heartbeat

D) Increased appetite

E) High body temperature

What is a characteristic clinical finding associated with Herpes Zoster?

A) Red, scaly patches

B) Dew drops on a red leaf

C) Thickened skin

D) White, flaky skin

E) Blisters on the palms

What does an ophthalmologic examination reveal in patients with cataracts?

A) Clear lens

B) Opacity of the lens

C) Increased eye pressure

D) Retinal detachment

E) Normal vision

What is a key characteristic of Bipolar Disorder?

A) Persistent sadness

B) Cycling through periods of depression and mania

C) Constant high energy

D) Only experiencing anxiety

E) Lack of sleep

Which of the following is a significant risk factor for lung cancer?

A) Regular exercise

B) History of or current cigarette smoking

C) High fruit consumption

D) Living at high altitudes

E) Low exposure to sunlight

Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with pulmonary embolism?

A) Chest pain

B) Anxiety

C) Hemoptysis

D) Nausea

E) Feeling of impending doom

Which of the following is NOT a clinical finding associated with Multiple Myeloma?

A) Bleeding tendency

B) Infections

C) Anemia

D) Hypertension

E) Pathologic fractures

What type of symptoms does influenza typically present?

A) Only respiratory symptoms

B) Only gastrointestinal symptoms

C) A combination of respiratory and gastrointestinal symptoms

D) Only neurological symptoms

E) Only dermatological symptoms

What is the primary treatment approach for Buerger’s Disease?

A) Medication to lower blood pressure

B) Smoking cessation

C) Increased physical activity

D) Surgery to remove thrombi

E) Dietary changes

What is a common respiratory symptom of Tuberculosis (TB)?

A) Productive cough

B) Shortness of breath

C) Wheezing

D) Chest tightness

E) Nasal congestion

What is tinnitus?

A) A type of headache

B) A ringing or buzzing in the ears

C) A loss of balance

D) A facial numbness

E) A vision impairment

What condition is associated with severe respiratory symptoms after coronavirus exposure?

A) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

B) Asthma

C) Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)

D) Pulmonary Fibrosis

E) Pneumonia

What additional symptoms often accompany mastoiditis?

A) Nausea and vomiting

B) Fever and chills

C) Headaches and dizziness

D) Cough and sore throat

E) Skin rash

What is a common symptom of Panic Disorder?

A) Chronic fatigue

B) Sudden feeling of impending doom

C) Constant headaches

D) Persistent cough

E) Loss of appetite

What is a common diagnostic finding in otosclerosis?

A) Increased sensitivity to loud sounds

B) Progressive hearing loss, especially with low or soft tones

C) Complete deafness

D) Hearing loss only in high frequencies

E) Normal hearing in both ears

What type of lesions are associated with Herpes Zoster?

A) Flat warts

B) Painful vesicular lesions

C) Erythematous macules

D) Papules

E) Ulcers

Where do the lesions of Herpes Zoster typically occur?

A) Bilaterally on the face

B) Along sensory nerve pathways

C) On the soles of the feet

D) Over the entire body

E) In the mouth

What is a common symptom of a pulmonary embolism?

A) Chronic cough

B) Rapid onset of dyspnea

C) Persistent fever

D) Weight gain

E) Skin rash

Which of the following symptoms indicates a potential liver issue in Hepatitis?

A) Right upper quadrant pain

B) Leg cramps

C) Chest tightness

D) Frequent urination

E) Skin rash

Which symptom may worsen with sneezing or coughing in patients with Acoustic Neuroma?

A) Tinnitus

B) Facial numbness

C) Headache

D) Balance problems

E) Vision changes

Which of the following is a common symptom of influenza?

A) Myalgia

B) Hair loss

C) Vision changes

D) Numbness

E) Swelling of the limbs

What visual phenomenon might patients with Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma experience?

A) Blurred vision

B) Halos around objects

C) Double vision

D) Complete blindness

E) Tunnel vision

What term is often associated with Chronic Bronchitis?

A) Pink puffer

B) Blue bloater

C) Wheezer

D) Cougher

E) Smoker

What is a key characteristic of Attention Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

A) Difficulty in social interactions

B) Difficulty focusing and finishing projects

C) Excessive sleeping

D) Strong memory retention

E) Lack of emotional responses

What condition is characterized by flushed skin that worsens with sun exposure, hot foods, and alcohol?

A) Eczema

B) Psoriasis

C) Rosacea

D) Acne

E) Dermatitis

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma?

A) Mild aching in the eyes

B) Headaches

C) Sudden vision loss

D) Painless vision loss

E) Halos around objects

What does a bone marrow biopsy reveal in cases of leukemia?

A) Normal WBC count

B) Many immature WBCs

C) High levels of platelets

D) Increased red blood cells

E) Absence of WBCs

What pH level indicates metabolic acidosis according to the ABG findings?

A) Greater than 7.45

B) Between 7.35 and 7.45

C) Less than 7.35

D) Exactly 7.40

E) Greater than 7.50

What is a potential indicator of severity in asthma?

A) Increased heart rate

B) Decreased O2 saturation

C) Elevated blood pressure

D) Increased respiratory rate

E) High fever

Which additional symptoms may accompany Ménière’s Disease?

A) Sweating, nausea, and vomiting

B) Fever and chills

C) Coughing and sneezing

D) Fatigue and weakness

E) Skin rashes and itching

What triggers pain in the external auditory canal during Otitis Externa?

A) Exposure to cold air

B) Pressure on the tragus

C) Loud noises

D) Bright lights

E) Sudden movements

What does activity intolerance in myocarditis indicate?

A) Increased stamina

B) Heart failure

C) Improved cardiovascular health

D) Normal heart function

E) Enhanced physical performance

What is a major consequence of Buerger’s Disease?

A) Increased heart rate

B) Thrombi developing in the legs

C) High blood pressure

D) Stroke

E) Heart attack

What is a key characteristic of mania?

A) Excessive sadness

B) Delusions of grandeur

C) Severe anxiety

D) Social withdrawal

E) Lack of energy

Which of the following behaviors is NOT typically associated with Borderline Personality Disorder?

A) Impulsive actions

B) Stable relationships

C) Self-destructive behavior

D) Intense emotional responses

E) Fear of abandonment

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Bipolar Disorder?

A) Mania

B) Depression

C) Anxiety

D) Cycling moods

E) Rapid cycling

What is the medical term for lung cancer?

A) Pulmonary fibrosis

B) Bronchitis

C) Lung carcinoma

D) Pneumonia

E) Asthma

What are common diagnostic findings in respiratory disorders after exposure to the coronavirus?

A) Fever and rash

B) Cough, rhonchi, and crackles

C) Nausea and vomiting

D) Headache and dizziness

E) Joint pain and swelling

Which body parts are primarily affected by Raynaud’s Disease?

A) Head and neck

B) Arms and legs

C) Tips of the nose, fingers, hands, feet, and toes

D) Abdomen and back

E) Chest and shoulders

What term is used to describe a patient with emphysema who has a pink complexion?

A) Blue bloater

B) Pink puffer

C) Yellow jaundice

D) Red face

E) Pale patient

What symptoms may indicate a reaction to sulfa drugs, antibiotics, or antiepileptics?

A) Nausea and vomiting

B) Flu-like symptoms or macular rash

C) Severe headaches

D) Joint pain

E) Abdominal cramps

At what age group is Acne Vulgaris most commonly observed?

A) Infants

B) Adolescents

C) Middle-aged adults

D) Seniors

E) Newborns

What is a key characteristic of Conversion Disorder?

A) The client is highly distressed about their symptoms

B) Symptoms are accompanied by clear medical explanations

C) The client appears indifferent to the loss of function

D) It primarily affects cognitive functions

E) It is always temporary and resolves quickly

Which cells are primarily damaged in Graft-Versus-Host Disease?

A) Neurons

B) Epithelial cells

C) Muscle cells

D) Adipocytes

E) Osteocytes

What type of glaucoma is characterized by bilateral vision loss and specific tonometry measurements?

A) Angle-Closure Glaucoma

B) Normal-Tension Glaucoma

C) Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma

D) Secondary Glaucoma

E) Congenital Glaucoma

Which symptom is associated with jaundice in Hepatitis?

A) Increased appetite

B) Yellowing of the skin and eyes

C) Severe abdominal pain

D) Weight gain

E) Increased energy levels

What happens to creatinine and BUN levels in Malignant Hyperthermia?

A) They decrease

B) They remain unchanged

C) They increase

D) They fluctuate

E) They normalize