What does an elevated serum tryptase level confirm?
Mast cell degranulation and therefore anaphylaxis.
What is the incidence of AAGA when neuromuscular blockade is used?
1 in 8,000.
1/184
p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

What does an elevated serum tryptase level confirm?

Mast cell degranulation and therefore anaphylaxis.

p.6
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What is the incidence of AAGA when neuromuscular blockade is used?

1 in 8,000.

p.6
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What is awareness under general anesthesia?

Awareness under general anesthesia is the ability to perceive, feel, or be consciously aware of one’s surroundings; this may or may not be accompanied by the experience of pain.

p.13
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What should be done if there is no satisfactory response to initial bradycardia management?

Reassess the situation starting at ABC and treat the probable cause as appropriate.

p.6
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What is the incidence of AAGA in obstetric rapid sequence inductions?

1 in 670.

p.16
Critical Incident Reporting

What should you do if you encounter a critical incident during surgery?

Hand-ventilate with 100% oxygen and ask the surgeon to stop operating until it is safe to continue.

p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

What steroid is administered during the early management of anaphylaxis?

Hydrocortisone 200 mg IV.

p.16
Critical Incident Reporting

What should you do immediately when identifying an anesthetic emergency?

State that it is an anesthetic emergency and call for senior anesthetic assistance.

p.13
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What are the management options for persistent bradycardia?

Ask for the crash trolley, administer adrenaline 2–10 μg/min of 1:10,000 preparation, commence transcutaneous pacing, and if HR <30 with significant haemodynamic compromise, commence CPR and follow ALS algorithm for asystole.

p.9
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What should be documented in the medical notes concerning blood transfusion?

Decisions concerning the need to transfuse the patient.

p.9
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What must be checked to ensure the blood is correct for the patient?

The blood compatibility label.

p.4
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What is aspiration?

The inhalation of oropharyngeal or gastric contents into the lower airways.

p.8
Critical Incident Reporting

What form should be completed after a critical incident?

A critical incident form.

p.6
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What are the phases of anesthesia where the risk of awareness is highest?

Induction and emergence, which account for two-thirds of all reported AAGA cases.

p.6
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

How does the use of neuromuscular blocking drugs affect the incidence of AAGA?

The incidence increases from 1 in 136,000 to 1 in 8,000.

p.10
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What is an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?

It occurs when incompatible transfused cells react with the patient's own anti-A or anti-B antibodies or other alloantibodies, leading to activation of complement and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

p.2
Anaphylaxis Management

What is anaphylaxis?

Anaphylaxis is an acute, Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction caused by antigens binding to IgE immunoglobulin on mast cells, causing them to degranulate and release mediators like histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes.

p.7
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

Which subspecialties have a higher risk of awareness under general anesthesia?

Obstetrics and cardiothoracics.

p.15
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What are some non-patient factors related to the anaesthetic circuit that can cause difficulty in ventilation?

Blockage, compression, kinking of tubing, incorrect connection of circuit, scavenging, reservoir bag, filter, humidifier, APL valve or PEEP valve.

p.13
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What should be checked and administered if the patient is hypotensive during bradycardia?

Check BP and give a fluid bolus (10 mL/kg of either crystalloid or colloid), and repeat if necessary.

p.4
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What did the 4th National Audit Project (NAP 4) find about aspiration?

Aspiration remained the leading cause of airway-related anaesthetic deaths, with most cases having identifiable risk factors.

p.16
Critical Incident Reporting

How should you exclude obvious causes during a critical incident in anesthesia?

Start at the patient (check tube position and auscultate chest) and sequentially examine from the airway back to the anesthetic machine. Treat the cause as you discover it.

p.13
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What should be arranged for the patient after managing persistent bradycardia?

Arrange transfer to ICU for further investigation, advanced monitoring, and management.

p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

Which inotropes or vasopressors might be considered in anaphylaxis management?

Adrenaline or noradrenaline.

p.9
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What are the four standard identifiers required to confirm the identity of the patient?

First name, surname, date of birth, and hospital/NHS number.

p.8
Critical Incident Reporting

What should you provide to the patient after a critical incident?

A full explanation.

p.13
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What should be done if the heart rate is less than 30 with significant haemodynamic compromise?

Commence CPR and follow the ALS algorithm for asystole.

p.8
Critical Incident Reporting

What should be done with your consultant after a critical incident?

Debrief to try to determine what, if anything, could have been done differently.

p.16
Critical Incident Reporting

What contextual factors should be considered during a critical incident in anesthesia?

Patient position (prone, Trendelenburg), pre-existing disease (asthma, obesity, ARDS), timing of event (e.g., following central venous line insertion), risk factors (allergy, bronchospasm), surgery (e.g., laparoscopy with pneumoperitoneum).

p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

What test should be conducted at 1 hour during anaphylaxis management?

Take blood for serum tryptase levels.

p.8
Critical Incident Reporting

What should be reviewed to ascertain the cause of a critical incident?

The medical notes and anaesthetic records.

p.8
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

How should you respond if true awareness under general anesthesia is suspected?

Be sympathetic and apologize.

p.15
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What should be done after identifying the cause of difficulty in ventilation?

Treat the identified cause, clearly document the sequence of events on the anaesthetic chart, and complete a critical incident form.

p.9
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

Where should the details of the unit of blood transfused be recorded?

On the anaesthetic chart or in the contemporaneous clinical notes.

p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

What is the first step in the early management of anaphylaxis?

Give antihistamines – chlorpheniramine 10 mg IV.

p.9
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What should be done with removed patient identification bands?

They must be replaced or reattached.

p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

When should bronchodilators be administered in anaphylaxis management?

If necessary, during early management.

p.6
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

Why is total intravenous anesthesia associated with a risk of awareness?

Because no real-time plasma concentration of the intravenous agent can be made, and pharmacokinetic models are relied upon to predict plasma and effect site concentrations.

p.14
Cyanosis Classification and Causes

At what arterial oxygen saturation levels does cyanosis become clinically evident?

Cyanosis becomes clinically evident when arterial oxygen saturations fall below approximately 85–90%, correlating with a deoxyhemoglobin level of at least 5 g/dL.

p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

What should be checked prior to extubation in anaphylaxis management?

Check for a cuff leak.

p.11
Critical Incident Reporting

What forms should be completed after a blood transfusion error?

Hospital critical incident reporting forms.

p.8
Critical Incident Reporting

What should you do first when managing a critical incident involving patient awareness under general anesthesia?

Document all conversations.

p.15
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What are some endotracheal tube issues that can cause difficulty in ventilation?

Kinked tube, misplaced tube (e.g., oesophageal or endobronchial), obstructed tube (e.g., sputum, blood, or foreign body).

p.8
Critical Incident Reporting

What should you offer the patient following a critical incident?

A follow-up appointment and psychological support.

p.15
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What are the two main categories of factors that may cause difficulty ventilating an anaesthetised patient intra-operatively?

Patient factors and non-patient factors.

p.15
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What are some patient factors that can reduce chest wall compliance?

Chest wall rigidity, malignant hyperthermia or opioids, prone position, obesity, kyphoscoliosis, raised abdominal pressures (e.g., pneumoperitoneum), inadequate paralysis or patient ‘fighting’ ventilator.

p.9
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What is the first step to minimize the risk of administering incorrect blood products to a patient?

All staff involved in blood transfusions must have undergone mandatory training in blood transfusion safety.

p.15
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What ventilator-related issue can cause difficulty in ventilation?

Excessive tidal volumes.

p.15
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What are some patient factors that can reduce lung compliance?

Pneumothorax, bronchospasm, lobar collapse or atelectasis, pulmonary oedema, pulmonary fibrosis, aspiration, ARDS.

p.16
Critical Incident Reporting

What are the key indicators of a critical incident during anesthesia?

Difficult to ventilate, decreased compliance in reservoir bag, poor chest expansion, low minute volume, high airway pressure and alarm limits reached, abnormal CO2 trace, hypoxia, circulatory collapse.

p.6
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What are the two types of awareness under general anesthesia?

Explicit memory (intentional recollection of events with conscious perception) and implicit memory (non-intentional recollection of events with subconscious perception).

p.16
Critical Incident Reporting

What basic parameters should be checked during a critical incident in anesthesia?

Heart rate, ECG, blood pressure, oxygen saturation, ETCO2 trace.

p.13
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What should be done regarding the surgery if bradycardia persists?

Terminate surgery as soon as safely possible.

p.7
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What is MAC in the context of anesthesia?

MAC is the minimum alveolar concentration, at one atmosphere ambient pressure, required to prevent movement in 50% of subjects in response to a surgical stimulus.

p.14
Cyanosis Classification and Causes

What is cyanosis?

Cyanosis describes the blue discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to the presence of increased quantities of deoxygenated hemoglobin.

p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

What should be done if the airway or ventilation is of concern during anaphylaxis management?

Admit to ITU and leave intubated.

p.14
Cyanosis Classification and Causes

Where is central cyanosis most visible and what are its common causes?

Central cyanosis is most visible in the tongue and lips. Common causes are cardio-respiratory problems, which may be acute (e.g., obstructed airway) or chronic (e.g., some types of congenital heart disease).

p.14
Cyanosis Classification and Causes

Where is peripheral cyanosis most visible and what causes it?

Peripheral cyanosis is most visible in the fingers and nail beds. It is caused by reduced peripheral perfusion and may be seen in combination with central cyanosis.

p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

Who is responsible for referring the patient to an immunologist for further allergy testing?

The anaesthetist involved in the case.

p.11
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

Why are reactions due to anti-D rare?

Because patients generally receive RhD-compatible red cells.

p.11
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

Where does the destruction of transfused red cells mainly occur?

In the liver and spleen.

p.17
Failed Intubation Protocols

What is the incidence of failed intubations in elective intubations?

Approximately 1:2000 elective intubations.

p.17
Failed Intubation Protocols

What guidelines should be followed for managing a failed intubation?

The Difficult Airway Society (DAS) guidelines.

p.18
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What radiological investigations can aid in predicting difficult intubation?

CT or MRI of the upper airway and neck, X-ray of mandible and cervical spine.

p.17
Failed Intubation Protocols

What percentage of difficult intubations are not predicted despite pre-operative airway evaluation?

20% of all difficult intubations are not predicted.

p.13
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What should be done first when managing bradycardia during anesthesia?

Reduce or stop the volatile agent and check the MAC and end-tidal concentration of the volatile agent.

p.13
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What is the initial dose of atropine to administer for bradycardia?

0.6 mg (10 μg/kg), and it can be repeated up to a maximum of 3 mg.

p.8
Critical Incident Reporting

How should you reassure the patient after a critical incident?

Reassure the patient that this is very unlikely to happen again.

p.16
Critical Incident Reporting

What alternative circuit can be considered during a critical incident in anesthesia?

Consider switching to an alternative circuit, e.g., Ambu bag.

p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

When should bicarbonate be administered during anaphylaxis management?

If the patient is severely acidotic.

p.7
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What percentage of AAGA reports to NAP5 were due to drug error?

10% of the reports of AAGA to NAP5 were due to drug error.

p.11
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What should be done if critical care is indicated during a blood transfusion error?

Liaise with critical care.

p.19
Failed Intubation Protocols

How many risk factors are included in the Wilson risk sum score?

Five risk factors.

p.5
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What is the first step in the management of aspiration?

Call for help.

p.2
Anaphylaxis Management

What are some differential diagnoses for anaphylaxis symptoms?

Differential diagnoses include haemorrhage, asthma, high regional block, myocardial infarction, and malignant hyperthermia.

p.10
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What should be done with the blood packs and giving set after a suspected haemolytic transfusion reaction?

Return them to the blood bank for bacteriology.

p.18
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

How is the Mallampati score performed?

With the patient sitting up, head in neutral position, mouth wide open, and tongue protruding with no phonation.

p.17
Failed Intubation Protocols

What is the incidence of failed intubations in the ICU or emergency department?

Approximately 1:50–100 intubations in the ICU or emergency department.

p.5
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What type of fluid counts as clear fluid for fasting protocols?

If you are able to read the typed page through the fluid, it counts as clear.

p.12
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What is the first step in managing an anaesthetised patient who develops bradycardia intra-operatively?

State that this is an anaesthetic emergency and call for senior anaesthetic assistance.

p.17
Failed Intubation Protocols

What should an anaesthetic airway assessment encompass?

Reviewing medical records and previous anaesthetic charts, history of presenting pathology, medical diseases, surgery to the neck and airway, radiotherapy to the head and neck, and any previous anaesthesia complications.

p.9
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What should be done if a blood bag has been out of a blood fridge for longer than 30 minutes?

It should be transfused within 4 hours or discarded.

p.16
Critical Incident Reporting

What is the ABC approach in managing a critical incident during anesthesia?

Assess and resuscitate simultaneously.

p.4
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What are the potential consequences of aspiration?

Aspiration pneumonitis and/or aspiration pneumonia.

p.8
Critical Incident Reporting

Who should be informed about the critical incident?

The patient's GP, the hospital administrators, and your medical defence organisation.

p.9
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What organization evaluates blood transfusion errors and encourages UK hospitals to participate in haemovigilance?

Serious Hazards of Transfusion (SHOT).

p.7
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

Does the definition of MAC encompass the concept of awareness?

No, the definition of MAC does not encompass the concept of awareness, only movement.

p.11
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

Why should ECG monitoring be done during a blood transfusion error?

To detect changes suggestive of hyperkalaemia from haemolysis.

p.4
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

How can you manage a case of intra-operative aspiration pre-operatively?

Identify at-risk patients, administer antacids (e.g., ranitidine or sodium citrate), administer prokinetic drugs (e.g., metoclopramide), and postpone anaesthesia for 6 hours following a meal.

p.2
Anaphylaxis Management

What must occur for a patient to undergo an anaphylactic reaction?

The patient must have been previously sensitised to the antigen.

p.19
Failed Intubation Protocols

What is the maximum total score in the Wilson risk sum score?

10 points.

p.14
Cyanosis Classification and Causes

What are the common causes of peripheral cyanosis?

Common causes of peripheral cyanosis include all causes of central cyanosis, cold-induced peripheral vasoconstriction, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and low cardiac output states (e.g., cardiac failure).

p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

What documentation should be completed following an anaphylaxis incident?

Document events in the notes, inform the patient of events, send a letter to the GP, and complete a critical incident form.

p.2
Anaphylaxis Management

What dose of adrenaline should be administered in suspected anaphylaxis?

Administer 50–100 μg IV (0.5–1 ml of 1:10,000 solution) and repeat every minute until improvement or deterioration to cardiac arrest.

p.5
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What supportive treatments may be required post-operatively in severe cases of aspiration?

CPAP or IPPV with PEEP.

p.18
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

How can protruding teeth and edentulous patients affect airway management?

Protruding teeth make direct laryngoscopy difficult, while edentulous patients make face mask ventilation difficult.

p.5
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What are the fasting times for patients before surgery?

Food: 6 hours, Clear fluid: 2 hours, Breast milk: 4 hours, Bottle formula: 6 hours, Milk: 6 hours, Chewing gum: 2 hours.

p.18
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What is the significance of the thyromental distance in airway assessment?

It represents the gap available to displace the tongue and should be ≥6.5 cm.

p.17
Failed Intubation Protocols

What acquired factors contribute to a difficult intubation?

Factors such as swelling, infection, trauma, and scars.

p.6
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What is the estimated overall incidence of accidental awareness under general anesthesia (AAGA) according to NAP 5 data?

1 in 19,000 anesthetics.

p.4
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What is Mendelson’s syndrome?

A severe form of lung injury caused by aspiration pneumonitis, part of the ARDS spectrum.

p.4
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

Does aspiration pneumonitis always lead to aspiration pneumonia?

No, aspiration pneumonitis does not necessarily lead to aspiration pneumonia.

p.6
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What is a major contributory factor to AAGA during emergence?

Failure to use a nerve stimulator to ensure adequate return of muscle power before turning off anesthetic agents.

p.14
Cyanosis Classification and Causes

How can cyanosis be classified?

Cyanosis can be classified as central or peripheral.

p.2
Anaphylaxis Management

Can a patient experience anaphylaxis on their first exposure to a drug?

Yes, due to cross-sensitivity between environmental pathogens and anaesthetic agents, especially non-depolarising muscle relaxants like rocuronium.

p.19
Failed Intubation Protocols

What does a Wilson risk sum score of more than 2 predict?

Approximately 75% of difficult intubations.

p.14
Cyanosis Classification and Causes

What is the most important cause of cyanosis in terms of relevance to anesthesia?

The most important cause of cyanosis in terms of relevance to anesthesia is hypoxia, due to airway or ventilatory compromise until proven otherwise.

p.2
Anaphylaxis Management

Why might it be necessary to elevate the patient's legs during anaphylaxis management?

Elevating the patient's legs can improve central blood volume.

p.19
Failed Intubation Protocols

What should be done if immediate surgery is essential and there is a failed intubation?

Provided the patient can be adequately ventilated, the safest option of maintaining the patient’s airway (e.g., LMA ProSeal™) needs to be decided.

p.11
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What indicates that red cells are being destroyed after a transfusion?

A falling haemoglobin or a rise in haemoglobin that is less than expected, together with a rise in bilirubin and a positive direct antiglobulin test.

p.12
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What are some surgical procedures that can cause vagal stimulation leading to bradycardia?

Eye surgery, dilation of the anus and cervix, mesenteric retraction, laparoscopy, and airway manipulation.

p.12
Bradycardia Causes and Management

How can neuroaxial blocks cause bradycardia?

High spinal blockade to T1–T4 can compromise the cardiac sympathetic accelerator fibres.

p.18
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What radiological features may indicate a difficult intubation?

Reduced distance between the occiput and spine of C1, reduced distance between spine of C1 and C2, ratio of mandibular length to posterior mandibular depth >3.6.

p.9
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What is a legal requirement following the European Blood Directive?

100% traceability of all allogeneic blood transfused.

p.4
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What is aspiration pneumonitis?

An acute, chemically induced inflammation of the lung parenchyma caused by the acid in the gastric contents.

p.9
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

Why is good communication between medical staff and the laboratory essential?

To minimize the risk of transfusion errors.

p.11
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What are the key indicators of a blood transfusion error?

Metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia.

p.4
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What are some surgical factors that predispose to aspiration?

Gastrointestinal surgery and patient positioning such as lithotomy or head down.

p.10
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What are the signs of a haemolytic transfusion reaction in an unconscious or anaesthetised patient?

Hypotension and uncontrollable bleeding secondary to DIC.

p.7
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What equipment-related issues can lead to awareness under general anesthesia?

Faulty or malfunctioning equipment, equipment not used or programmed correctly by the anesthetist.

p.14
Cyanosis Classification and Causes

What are the causes of congenital cyanotic heart disease?

Congenital cyanotic heart disease is caused by heart lesions that result in a right to left shunt of blood, such as Tetralogy of Fallot, Pulmonary stenosis or atresia with septal defect, Truncus arteriosus, Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage, and Transposition of the great arteries.

p.5
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What should be administered immediately after aspiration?

100% O2.

p.19
Failed Intubation Protocols

What should be considered if surgery is elective and there is a failed intubation?

The patient should be woken up and alternative options like awake fibre-optic intubation, regional anaesthetic techniques, or local anaesthetic techniques should be considered.

p.17
Failed Intubation Protocols

What is the primary cause of death in failed intubation scenarios?

Lack of ventilation and oxygenation.

p.17
Failed Intubation Protocols

What is the incidence of difficult intubations?

Difficult intubations occur in about 1 in 65 cases.

p.12
Bradycardia Causes and Management

Why should you administer 100% oxygen and hand-ventilate a patient with intra-operative bradycardia?

To assess lung compliance and adequacy of ventilation.

p.13
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What documentation is required after a bradycardia incident?

Document the sequence of events in medical notes and complete a critical incident form.

p.7
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

At what MAC value is explicit recall extremely unlikely?

Explicit recall is extremely unlikely at MAC > 1.

p.11
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

How can the risk of acute kidney injury be minimized during a blood transfusion error?

By maintaining urine output.

p.19
Failed Intubation Protocols

What is the Wilson risk sum score used for?

It is a scoring system designed to predict a difficult intubation.

p.5
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What are the peri-operative measures to prevent aspiration?

NG tube placement and aspiration of gastric contents prior to surgery, use of rapid sequence induction with cricoid pressure where appropriate, and positioning the patient head up where possible.

p.11
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

Can haemolytic reactions occur due to red cell antibodies other than ABO?

Yes, they can be caused by antibodies such as anti-RhD, RhE, RhC, and K (Kell).

p.7
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What are some clinical signs of awareness under general anesthesia that might be masked by drugs?

Heart rate, blood pressure, tachypnoea, sweating, and lacrimation can be masked by drugs such as β-blockers, anti-muscarinic agents, opioids, and neuromuscular blockers.

p.18
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What is the normal inter-incisor gap for airway assessment?

5 cm or three-finger breadths using the patient's own fingers.

p.11
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

Which antigens can cause severe intravascular haemolysis leading to cardiac and renal failure?

Kidd and Duffy antigens.

p.12
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What is the most important cause of intra-operative bradycardia?

Hypoxia.

p.18
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What are the classifications for the jaw slide test?

A – lower incisors lie beyond the upper incisors, B – lower incisors meet upper incisors, C – lower incisors remain behind upper incisors.

p.12
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What should you ask the surgeon to do if a patient develops bradycardia during surgery?

Ask the surgeon to stop to eliminate any surgical vagal stimulation.

p.17
Failed Intubation Protocols

How can radiotherapy to the head and neck affect intubation?

It can distort airway anatomy and cause tissues surrounding the airway to become rigid, making head extension, jaw thrust, and direct laryngoscopy very difficult.

p.4
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What is aspiration pneumonia?

A condition where superimposed infection follows aspiration, commonly seen in patients with long-term 'silent' aspiration or acute aspiration with colonized material.

p.10
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What are the chances of ABO incompatibility if blood is mistakenly administered to the wrong patient?

Approximately one in three.

p.2
Anaphylaxis Management

What are the physiological effects of anaphylaxis?

The physiological effects of anaphylaxis include vasodilatation, increased capillary permeability, and smooth muscle constriction.

p.10
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What immediate steps should be taken if an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is suspected?

Stop the transfusion, adopt an ABC approach, administer colloid, support respiration and circulation, check compatibility labels, inform the blood bank and consultant haematologist, and take necessary blood tests.

p.10
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What should be done if clinical evidence of DIC develops during a haemolytic transfusion reaction?

Transfuse platelets, fresh frozen plasma, and cryoprecipitate guided by clinical state and coagulation study results.

p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

What should be completed to report the adverse reaction in anaphylaxis management?

A yellow card found in the back of the BNF.

p.2
Anaphylaxis Management

What is the immediate management for suspected anaphylaxis?

Immediate management includes stating it is an anaesthetic emergency, stopping the offending drug, securing the airway, giving 100% oxygen, maintaining anaesthesia with inhalational agents if the patient is paralysed, administering adrenaline 50–100 μg IV, repeating the dose every minute if needed, giving IV crystalloid or colloid, and elevating the patient's legs if possible.

p.11
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What symptoms might a patient experience during a haemolytic reaction?

Fever, nausea, and shivering.

p.12
Bradycardia Causes and Management

Which drugs can cause intra-operative bradycardia?

Inhalational agents (enflurane, halothane, isoflurane), opioids (fentanyl, remifentanil, morphine), anticholinesterases (neostigmine), muscle relaxants (vecuronium, tubocurarine, second dose of suxamethonium), vasopressors (metaraminol, phenylephrine), and β-blockers.

p.12
Bradycardia Causes and Management

What diseases can cause bradycardia?

Ischaemic heart disease and raised intracranial pressure.

p.18
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

How can flow–volume loops assist in airway assessment?

They can help differentiate between intrinsic and extrinsic causes of stridor.

p.4
Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What are some patient factors that predispose to aspiration?

Reduced level of consciousness, full stomach, reduced barrier pressure, and anatomical issues like pharyngeal pouch or oesophageal strictures.

p.10
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What are the symptoms and signs of a haemolytic transfusion reaction in a conscious patient?

Symptoms include agitation, pain at infusion site, flushing, abdominal, flank or substernal pain, and breathlessness. Signs may include pyrexia, hypotension, bleeding, haemoglobinaemia, and haemoglobinuria.

p.10
Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What should be done if bacterial contamination is suspected during a haemolytic transfusion reaction?

Administer broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and take blood cultures.

p.19
Failed Intubation Protocols

What should be done if a patient can be ventilated during a failed intubation?

Summon help and bring intubating aids.

p.18
Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What are the classifications of the Mallampati score?

Classes I–IV, with Class IV added by Samsoon and Young in 1987, and Class 0 applicable when the epiglottis is visible.

p.17
Failed Intubation Protocols

What anatomical factors contribute to a difficult intubation?

Factors such as morbid obesity, pregnancy, large breasts, thick, short and immobile necks, protruding teeth, beards, and receding jaws.

p.17
Failed Intubation Protocols

What is the significance of the Cormack and Lehane grade in airway assessment?

It helps establish the previous grade of intubation, where grade 3 or 4 is considered difficult.

p.7
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

List some patient factors that increase the risk of awareness under general anesthesia.

Female, younger adults, obesity, previous AAGA, unexpectedly difficult intubation, increased resistance to anesthetic agents (febrile, hyperthyroid, alcoholic, recreational drug users), moribund patients for emergency procedures.

p.3
Anaphylaxis Management

How should blood be stored for serum tryptase level testing?

In a plain glass tube stored at –20°C.

p.11
Critical Incident Reporting

To whom should a blood transfusion error be reported?

Report the incident to SABRE.

p.7
Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What should you do if a patient complains they were aware under general anesthesia?

Visit the patient as soon as possible with a witness (preferably a consultant), take a full history, elicit exactly what the patient sensed and whether they were in pain, and seek advice from a consultant.

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Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What head and neck features should be examined for potential airway management issues?

Scars, swellings (e.g., goitre), burns or radiotherapy, range of neck movement.

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Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What should be done if intubation is necessary after aspiration?

Suction down the ETT once in situ before giving positive-pressure ventilation, if possible.

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Failed Intubation Protocols

What is the incidence of failed intubations in obstetric rapid sequence intubations?

Approximately 1:300 obstetric rapid sequence intubations.

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Failed Intubation Protocols

What are two situations where surgery may be required despite failure of intubation in a pregnant patient?

Maternal cardiac arrest (CPR is not effective without delivery of the baby) and imminent risk of life to the mother if surgery does not proceed (e.g., massive peri-partum haemorrhage).

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Failed Intubation Protocols

How is a difficult intubation defined?

A difficult intubation is defined as one in which an anaesthetist with at least 2 years’ training, using a traditional laryngoscope blade, achieves only a poor view at direct laryngoscopy (grade 3 or 4), requires more than three attempts at direct laryngoscopy, takes more than 10 minutes to intubate, or needs additional equipment to secure the airway.

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Failed Intubation Protocols

What disease factors contribute to a difficult intubation?

Diseases such as acromegaly, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, airway malignancy, and cervical spine fractures.

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Awareness Under General Anesthesia

What monitoring failures can contribute to awareness under general anesthesia?

Failure to monitor concentration of inspired and expired volatile agents and MAC, failure to monitor peripheral cannula and infusion line with TIVA, failure to use specific depth of anesthesia monitoring, failure to look for clinical signs of awareness.

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Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What general physical characteristics can complicate airway management?

High BMI, beard, large breasts.

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Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What position should the patient be placed in if possible after aspiration?

Left lateral position with head down.

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Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What is SABRE and its purpose?

SABRE (Serious Adverse Blood Reaction and Events) is an online system for the submission of notification and subsequent confirmation of blood-related adverse events and reactions.

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Failed Intubation Protocols

What is paramount in the management of a failed intubation in a pregnant patient?

The mother’s survival.

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Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

When should antibiotics be considered in the case of aspiration?

If aspiration pneumonitis does not resolve within 48 hours, if the patient had bowel obstruction, or if they have been on regular antacids.

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Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

Why can large tongues complicate airway management?

Large tongues, as seen in patients with Down's syndrome, make inserting the laryngoscope difficult and can obscure the view.

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Bradycardia Causes and Management

What metabolic conditions can lead to bradycardia?

Hypothyroidism and hyperkalaemia.

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Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What is the purpose of flexible nasal endoscopy in airway assessment?

To obtain good views of the base of the tongue and vocal cords, typically performed by ENT surgeons.

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Anaphylaxis Management

What are the signs of anaphylaxis in an anaesthetised patient?

Signs include flushing and weals, wheezing, bronchospasm, rising airway pressures, oedema of face, lips, and oropharynx, pulmonary oedema, hypotension, and tachycardia.

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Blood Transfusion Safety Protocols

What samples should be taken for laboratory analysis during a suspected haemolytic transfusion reaction?

35 mL blood for haematology (5 mL EDTA tube for FBC, platelet count, DAT, plasma haemoglobin), 5 mL in a dry tube for repeat cross-matching, 10 mL in a citrated tube for coagulation screen (PT, APTT, fibrinogen), and 5 mL for clinical chemistry (urea and electrolytes).

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Failed Intubation Protocols

What algorithm should be followed if a patient cannot be ventilated during a failed intubation?

The 'can't intubate, can't ventilate' algorithm from the DAS.

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Aspiration Pneumonitis and Pneumonia

What imaging should be considered after aspiration?

CXR (Chest X-Ray).

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Bradycardia Causes and Management

What is the definition of bradycardia in an adult?

Bradycardia in an adult is defined as a heart rate (HR) <60 bpm, but any rate that is inappropriately slow for the individual and haemodynamic state should be considered.

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Difficult Ventilation in Anesthesia

What does the jaw slide test indicate?

The degree of mandibular subluxation during maximal forward protrusion of the mandible.

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Failed Intubation Protocols

What congenital factors contribute to a difficult intubation?

Conditions such as Down’s syndrome, Pierre Robin syndrome, Treacher Collins syndrome, and Marfan’s syndrome.

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Failed Intubation Protocols

Can a single test predict all difficult intubations?

No, there is no single test that can predict all difficult intubations.

Study Smarter, Not Harder
Study Smarter, Not Harder