What myotome is responsible for elbow flexion?
C5.
What is the most common source of metastasis overall?
Breast cancer.
1/284
p.34
Nerve Injuries Classification

What myotome is responsible for elbow flexion?

C5.

p.19
Bone Tumors

What is the most common source of metastasis overall?

Breast cancer.

p.15
Bone Tumors

What is the size of the central nidus in Osteoid Osteoma?

Less than 2 cm.

p.34
Nerve Injuries Classification

Which methods are used for localization of the lesion in sciatica?

Dermatomes, myotomes, and reflexes.

p.16
Bone Tumors

What is the primary treatment for Osteosarcoma?

Excision.

p.6
Nerve Injuries Classification

What are the symptoms of low radial nerve palsy?

Finger drop, thumb drop, and sensory loss.

p.19
Bone Tumors

Which bone tumor has the highest incidence of metastasis to the lungs?

Ewing's sarcoma.

p.22
Osteomyelitis

What is the primary treatment for chronic osteomyelitis?

Always surgical intervention.

p.5
Nerve Injuries Classification

What characterizes partial claw hand?

Extension of MCP joints and flexion of interphalangeal joints of the index and little finger.

p.13
Bone Tumors

What type of bone cyst is unilocular?

Simple bone cyst/Unicameral bone cyst.

p.15
Bone Tumors

What age group is primarily affected by Chondroblastoma?

10-25 years (before skeletal maturity).

p.4
Specific Nerve Injuries

What actions are lost due to injury affecting the thumb?

Abduction, flexion, and opposition.

p.10
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the most common cause of carpal tunnel syndrome?

Idiopathic.

p.30
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What do Helgenreiner’s & Perkin’s line divide?

The hip into 4 quadrants.

p.8
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the nerve affected in Klumpke’s palsy?

C8-T1/lower trunk.

p.33
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is a Jefferson fracture?

Fracture of the atlas (C1) caused by compression injury, with no neurological deficit.

p.23
Osteomyelitis

What type of osteomyelitis occurs in immunocompetent patients with good immunity?

Subacute osteomyelitis.

p.4
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the motor supply of the ulnar nerve?

FCU, medial half of FDP, adductor pollicis, lumbricals 3 and 4, interossei, and hypothenar muscles.

p.24
Septic Arthritis

What is bony ankylosis?

A complication where the organism releases proteolytic substances leading to joint fusion.

p.19
Osteomyelitis

What is the most common organism causing osteomyelitis?

Staphylococcus aureus.

p.25
Tuberculosis of Musculoskeletal System

What are common constitutional symptoms of TB spine?

Low grade fever, malaise, night pains, and evening rise of temperature.

p.4
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the autonomous zone of the ulnar nerve?

Tip of the little finger.

p.40
Specific Nerve Injuries

What optical property do the crystals in Chondrocalcinosis exhibit?

Positively birefringent.

p.2
Nerve Injuries Classification

What does a positive Tinel’s sign indicate in Axonotmesis?

It indicates the presence of a neuroma that grows at a rate of 1 mm/day.

p.6
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the first wrist extensor supplied by the radial nerve?

Extensor carpi radialis longus.

p.25
Tuberculosis of Musculoskeletal System

What is the earliest symptom of TB spine?

Pain.

p.4
Specific Nerve Injuries

What causes the pointing finger sign?

Supracondylar humeral fracture.

p.7
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the significance of the Ape thumb sign?

It indicates Median nerve injury.

p.22
Osteomyelitis

What is Brodie’s Abscess?

A variant of osteomyelitis that does not have a sinus or sequestrum.

p.11
Bone Tumors

Which malignant bone tumor is most common in children?

Primary Osteosarcoma.

p.40
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is one differential diagnosis for Chondrocalcinosis?

Ochronosis/Alkaptonuria.

p.7
Nerve Injuries Classification

What does the Kiloh Nevin sign assess?

Pincer grasp function related to Median nerve injury.

p.17
Bone Tumors

Where is hemangioma most commonly located?

Spine > Skull > Pelvis.

p.39
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the gender prevalence for ankylosing spondylitis?

More common in males (M > F).

p.6
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is a clinical feature of very high radial nerve palsy?

Inability to extend the elbow, wrist drop, thumb drop, finger drop, and sensory loss.

p.4
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the significance of the 'pointing index' or 'benediction sign'?

It indicates paralysis of all wrist flexors except FCU and medial half of FDP.

p.4
Specific Nerve Injuries

Which nerve is most commonly injured in supracondylar humeral fractures?

Anterior interosseous nerve (AIN).

p.2
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the classification of nerve injuries according to Seddon?

Neuropraxia, Axonotmesis, and Neurotmesis.

p.25
Tuberculosis of Musculoskeletal System

What does Spina Ventosa refer to?

Tuberculosis of the fingers characterized by filling up of air.

p.9
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the purpose of an aeroplane splint?

To manage deformities, particularly in cases like Erb’s palsy.

p.6
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the recommended treatment for wrist/finger/thumb drop?

Cock-up splint.

p.29
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the incidence of developmental dysplasia of the hip?

1 in 1000 live births.

p.3
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the treatment for nerve injuries according to the text?

Repair + graft.

p.33
Specific Nerve Injuries

What characterizes a Hangman’s fracture?

Fracture of C2 (spondylolysis) with dislocation of C2 over C3, commonly caused by road traffic accidents (RTA).

p.23
Osteomyelitis

What is the most common site for subacute osteomyelitis?

Proximal end of the tibia.

p.5
Nerve Injuries Classification

What does a positive Froment’s sign indicate?

Abductor pollicis is paralyzed, leading to thumb flexion by flexor pollicis longus.

p.28
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What syndrome is most commonly associated with Sprengel’s deformity?

Klippel Feil syndrome.

p.27
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What does the mnemonic SALTER represent in pediatric fractures?

It represents the classification of fractures involving the growth plate.

p.15
Bone Tumors

What is the treatment for Chondroblastoma?

Excision curettage + ABG.

p.31
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the incidence of this condition in live births?

1 in 1000 live births.

p.40
Specific Nerve Injuries

What does Chondrocalcinosis refer to?

Deposition of calcium in the cartilage.

p.3
Nerve Injuries Classification

What does a Sunderland 4 injury involve?

Injury of axon + endoneurium + perineurium.

p.27
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the prognosis for Type I fractures?

Best prognosis as the germinal layer is preserved.

p.23
Osteomyelitis

What sign is observed on MRI for subacute osteomyelitis?

Penumbra sign.

p.20
Osteomyelitis

What is the primary site of infection in osteomyelitis?

Metaphysis of long bone.

p.8
Specific Nerve Injuries

Which muscles are supplied by the suprascapular nerve?

Supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

p.28
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the most common cause of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis?

Idiopathic.

p.22
Osteomyelitis

What surgical procedures are involved in the management of chronic osteomyelitis?

Sinus tract excision, sequestrectomy, debridement, and closure with skin or muscle flap.

p.38
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is a common feature of spondyloarthropathies?

Inflammatory arthritis affecting the spine and joints.

p.20
Osteomyelitis

What are the pathological hallmarks of acute and chronic osteomyelitis?

Acute: Presence of abscess; Chronic: Formation of sequestrum.

p.24
Septic Arthritis

What is the main organism responsible for tenosynovitis?

Staphylococcus aureus.

p.19
Bone Tumors

What is the most common malignant bone tumor?

Ewing's sarcoma.

p.6
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the most common cause of high radial nerve palsy?

Holstein Lewis fracture (Lower 1/3rd of humerus).

p.16
Bone Tumors

What is a characteristic feature of Giant Cell Tumor (GCT)?

Locally aggressive.

p.12
Bone Tumors

What is the appearance associated with Ewing Sarcoma?

Onion Peel appearance.

p.5
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the sensory supply loss at Guyon’s canal?

Loss of sensory supply leading to partial claw hand.

p.12
Bone Tumors

What is the characteristic appearance of Osteosarcoma on X-ray?

Sun burst appearance.

p.32
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the fulcrum during the corrective steps for CTEV treatment?

Talar head.

p.10
Nerve Injuries Classification

What are some other causes of carpal tunnel syndrome?

Hypothyroidism, rheumatoid arthritis, pregnancy, acromegaly, gout, Colle’s fracture, amyloidosis.

p.12
Bone Tumors

What is Codman's triangle associated with?

Osteosarcoma.

p.32
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the treatment for CTEV in children aged 0-1 years?

Ponsetti serial manipulation and casting, followed by Dennis Brown splint at night and CTEV shoes during the day.

p.13
Bone Tumors

What type of bone cyst is multilocular?

Aneurysmal bone cyst.

p.14
Bone Tumors

What type of tumor is an osteochondroma?

A benign bone tumor.

p.12
Bone Tumors

What is the most common site for Fibrous Dysplasia?

Proximal femur.

p.20
Osteomyelitis

What is the most common organism causing osteomyelitis?

Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus).

p.9
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the site of compression in carpal tunnel syndrome?

Median nerve at the wrist.

p.33
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is a Clay Shoveler’s fracture?

An avulsion fracture of the C7 spinous process due to the force of upper limb muscles in clay shovelers.

p.23
Osteomyelitis

What are the characteristic clinical features of subacute osteomyelitis?

Pus presence, acute dull aching pain, no periosteal reaction, and a thick sclerotic rim.

p.29
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the common presentation age for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

Puberty.

p.16
Bone Tumors

What technique is used to reduce recurrence rates in Giant Cell Tumor treatment?

Extensive curettage technique.

p.24
Septic Arthritis

What are the characteristics of bony ankylosis in pyogenic septic arthritis?

No movement, no pain, and the joint is stable.

p.36
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the most common type of scoliosis in infants?

Neuromuscular Infantile Non-structural/Postural Idiopathic.

p.34
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the most common cause of sciatica?

Prolapsed intervertebral disc (PIVD).

p.29
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What are the clinical features of coxa vara?

Restricted abduction & internal rotation, Trendelenburg gait.

p.9
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the site of injury in Guyon's canal syndrome?

Ulnar nerve under the pisohamate ligament.

p.35
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the treatment for ankle plantar flexion issues?

Conservative treatment includes rest in a semi-fowler position and physiotherapy.

p.23
Septic Arthritis

What is the most common organism causing septic arthritis in children?

Staphylococcus.

p.18
Bone Tumors

What is the T10 protocol for treating osteosarcoma?

High dose Methotrexate.

p.26
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the treatment regimen for Potts paraplegia?

ATT for 18-24 months + rest + brace (Taylor).

p.9
Specific Nerve Injuries

What nerve is involved in pronator syndrome?

Median nerve at the heads of pronator teres.

p.28
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is Sever's disease associated with?

Tibial tuberosity.

p.15
Bone Tumors

What is the common name for Chondroblastoma?

Codman’s Tumor.

p.16
Bone Tumors

What is the most common location for Giant Cell Tumor?

Distal femur.

p.22
Osteomyelitis

What is the significance of the Paprika Sign in osteomyelitis treatment?

Indicates fresh bleeding during curettage, allowing for closure with bone graft or cement.

p.30
Pediatric Orthopaedics

In Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH), where is the head located?

In the upper & outer quadrant.

p.16
Bone Tumors

What is the X-ray appearance associated with Giant Cell Tumor?

Soap bubble appearance.

p.9
Nerve Injuries Classification

What condition is characterized by undue separation of head and shoulder?

Erb’s palsy.

p.22
Osteomyelitis

What are common complications of chronic osteomyelitis?

Pathological fracture, acute exacerbation of disease, neoplastic change of the sinus tract, and amyloidosis.

p.31
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What percentage of cases present bilaterally?

50%.

p.8
Specific Nerve Injuries

What muscle does the long thoracic nerve supply?

Serratus anterior.

p.26
Specific Nerve Injuries

What causes cord edema?

Inflammation.

p.17
Bone Tumors

What is the most common benign bone tumor of the spine?

Hemangioma.

p.11
Bone Tumors

What is the most common malignant bone tumor in the first decade of life?

Ewing Sarcoma.

p.34
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is sciatica?

Pain radiating from the lower back to the lower limb through the sciatic nerve.

p.32
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the most common cause of disproportionate dwarfism?

Achondroplasia.

p.28
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What are the key features of Klippel Feil syndrome?

Short webbed neck, low set hairline, restriction of neck movements.

p.17
Bone Tumors

What is the typical presentation of a hemangioma?

Asymptomatic, vascular tumor of bone.

p.30
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What condition is characterized by bilateral genu valgus (knock knees)?

Idiopathic or Rickets in children.

p.5
Nerve Injuries Classification

Which nerve is the most commonly injured with the best prognosis?

Radial nerve.

p.10
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the initial treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome?

Conservative management.

p.27
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What characterizes a Type III fracture?

Also known as Thurston Holland, it has a poor prognosis.

p.12
Bone Tumors

What is the biopsy appearance for Fibrous Dysplasia?

Chinese letter pattern appearance.

p.34
Nerve Injuries Classification

What does the Straight Leg Raising Test (SLRT) indicate?

Aggravation of symptoms related to sciatica.

p.29
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the Galeazzi sign used for?

To assess for developmental dysplasia of the hip.

p.2
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the recovery outcome for Neurotmesis?

No recovery.

p.35
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is a common cause of cauda equina syndrome?

Massive disc prolapse leading to multiple nerve roots being compressed.

p.31
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the most common cause of congenital foot deformities?

Idiopathic.

p.32
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the treatment for CTEV in children aged 5-8 years?

PMTSR + Dilwyn Evan’s + Dwyer’s osteotomy.

p.8
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the presentation of Erb’s palsy?

Policeman’s tip/waiter’s tip/porter’s tip.

p.36
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the most common cause of congenital scoliosis?

Hemi vertebrae.

p.39
Specific Nerve Injuries

What joints are primarily involved in ankylosing spondylitis?

Sacroiliac joint, spine, and hip.

p.9
Specific Nerve Injuries

What nerve is compressed in tarsal tunnel syndrome?

Posterior tibial nerve behind the medial malleolus.

p.25
Tuberculosis of Musculoskeletal System

What is Caries sicca?

Dry/non-exudative tuberculosis of the shoulder.

p.6
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the clinical feature of PIN palsy?

Finger drop and thumb drop.

p.4
Specific Nerve Injuries

What does a weak OK sign indicate?

Kiloh Nevin syndrome or anterior interosseous nerve injury.

p.7
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the primary test for the Ulnar nerve?

Book test.

p.19
Bone Tumors

What is the most common benign bone tumor?

Osteochondroma.

p.25
Tuberculosis of Musculoskeletal System

What are the types of TB Spondylitis?

Paradiscal, Central, Anterior/wet/exudative, and Posterior.

p.10
Nerve Injuries Classification

What demographic is most affected by carpal tunnel syndrome?

Females aged 30 to 60 years.

p.2
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the recovery time for Neuropraxia?

Spontaneous recovery in 3-6 weeks with 100% recovery.

p.30
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the treatment for DDH in infants aged 0-6 months?

Pavlik harness or Von Rosen splint.

p.13
Bone Tumors

What is a characteristic feature of an aneurysmal bone cyst?

Asymmetrical expansile growth.

p.10
Nerve Injuries Classification

What are common clinical features of carpal tunnel syndrome?

Burning pain, tingling, numbness, and paresthesia in the median nerve sensory distribution, often worsening at night.

p.14
Bone Tumors

What is the most common site for osteochondroma?

Distal Femur.

p.12
Bone Tumors

What X-ray appearance is associated with Fibrous Dysplasia?

Ground Glass appearance.

p.38
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is Boutonniere’s deformity?

A finger deformity characterized by flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint and extension of the distal interphalangeal joint.

p.13
Bone Tumors

What age group is most commonly affected by bone cysts?

10-20 years (younger).

p.10
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the best clinical test for diagnosing carpal tunnel syndrome?

Durkan’s test.

p.33
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is a Chance fracture?

Also known as a seatbelt fracture, it is a fracture that goes all the way through the vertebra due to flexion and distraction forces.

p.31
Pediatric Orthopaedics

Which gender is more affected by this condition?

Males (M > F).

p.18
Bone Tumors

What is the initial treatment approach for osteosarcoma?

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgery or limb ablation.

p.32
Pediatric Orthopaedics

Which gene mutation is associated with Achondroplasia?

Mutation in the FGFR3 gene on chromosome 4.

p.14
Bone Tumors

What are the common causes of pain associated with osteochondroma?

Bursitis, nerve compression, and fracture.

p.15
Bone Tumors

What symptom is characteristic of Osteoid Osteoma?

Night pain that is relieved by aspirin.

p.31
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is a common association with this condition regarding pregnancy?

Associated with breech presentation and oligohydramnios.

p.32
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What are some deformities associated with Achondroplasia?

Brachydactyly, starfish hand, frontal bossing, saddle nose, champagne glass pelvis, bullet nose vertebrae.

p.13
Bone Tumors

What is the typical treatment for an aneurysmal bone cyst?

Aspiration ± injection with steroids/sclerosants.

p.27
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is unique about Type IV fractures?

They pass through all three layers of the growth plate and have a poor prognosis.

p.23
Septic Arthritis

What is the most common site for septic arthritis in adults?

Knee.

p.29
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What does a feeble or absent femoral pulse indicate?

Vascular sign of Narath, associated with developmental dysplasia of the hip.

p.17
Bone Tumors

What is the most common malignant bone tumor in children?

Osteosarcoma.

p.23
Septic Arthritis

What is the typical treatment for septic arthritis?

Arthrotomy with irrigation and debridement under antibiotic cover.

p.18
Bone Tumors

What are poor prognostic factors for Ewing's Sarcoma?

Metastasis, size of lesion, and male gender.

p.16
Bone Tumors

In which age group is Giant Cell Tumor most commonly found?

20-40 years (after skeletal maturity).

p.19
Bone Tumors

What is the most common primary malignant bone tumor?

Multiple Myeloma.

p.28
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the most common type of disease mentioned?

Perthe's disease.

p.2
Nerve Injuries Classification

What characterizes Neuropraxia?

Temporary physiological, reversible conduction block due to compression.

p.20
Osteomyelitis

What are the common causes of osteomyelitis?

Direct/post-surgical, open fracture, and septic arthritis.

p.8
Nerve Injuries Classification

What causes Klumpke’s palsy?

Hyper-abduction of shoulder, difficult breech delivery, or holding on to something during a fall from height.

p.40
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the shape of the crystals associated with Chondrocalcinosis?

Polygonal in shape.

p.15
Bone Tumors

What are the X-ray findings for Chondroblastoma?

Punctate/stippled calcification.

p.29
Pediatric Orthopaedics

Which gender is more affected by developmental dysplasia of the hip?

Females (F > M).

p.16
Bone Tumors

What is the risk of malignant transformation in Giant Cell Tumor cases?

Less than 5%.

p.24
Septic Arthritis

What are the characteristics of fibrous ankylosis in TB arthritis?

Movement is possible, pain is present, and the joint is unstable.

p.19
Osteomyelitis

What is the most common route of infection for acute osteomyelitis?

Hematogenous.

p.30
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the most common cause of bilateral genu varum (bow legs)?

Rickets.

p.5
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the treatment for ulnar nerve injury?

Knuckle bender splint.

p.26
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the earliest neurological sign of cord edema?

Ankle clonus/DTR ++.

p.14
Bone Tumors

What is a key characteristic of osteochondroma growth?

It grows away from the joint line and stops growing with skeletal maturity.

p.12
Bone Tumors

What syndrome is characterized by Polyostotic Fibrous Dysplasia and café au lait spots?

Mc-Cune Albright Syndrome.

p.25
Tuberculosis of Musculoskeletal System

What is the gold standard for diagnosing TB spine?

CT Guided Biopsy.

p.13
Bone Tumors

What is the typical location for a simple bone cyst?

Proximal humerus.

p.3
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is Tinel’s sign used for?

To assess nerve regeneration following injury.

p.33
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is a Prolapsed Intervertebral Disc (PIVD)?

Condition where the intervertebral disc bulges out posteriorly and compresses the nerve root.

p.11
Bone Tumors

What type of bone tumor is associated with ages 20-40 years?

Giant Cell Tumor and Secondary Osteosarcoma.

p.5
Nerve Injuries Classification

What does the posterior interosseous nerve supply?

Extensors of the thumb and fingers.

p.8
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the primary function of the axillary nerve?

Supplies the deltoid for abduction and teres minor for external rotation.

p.14
Bone Tumors

What are the risk factors for malignant transformation of osteochondroma?

Persistence of growth after skeletal maturity, a cartilaginous cap greater than 2 cm, and heavy calcification.

p.39
Specific Nerve Injuries

Which antigen is commonly associated with ankylosing spondylitis?

HLA B27 positive.

p.40
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is a third differential diagnosis for Chondrocalcinosis?

Hyperparathyroidism.

p.24
Septic Arthritis

What is the Kanavel sign?

A clinical sign indicating infection of the tendon or tendon sheath.

p.9
Specific Nerve Injuries

What condition is associated with entrapment of the superficial radial nerve?

Cheralgia paresthetica at the radial styloid.

p.33
Specific Nerve Injuries

What clinical feature is associated with Clay Shoveler’s and Chance fractures?

History of lifting heavy objects.

p.38
Nerve Injuries Classification

What are common clinical features of spondyloarthropathies?

Morning stiffness and back pain that improves with activity.

p.20
Osteomyelitis

Which imaging technique picks up earliest changes in osteomyelitis?

MRI, showing marrow edema in less than 24 hours.

p.17
Bone Tumors

What is the typical location of osteosarcoma?

Metaphyseal tumor at the distal end of the femur.

p.34
Nerve Injuries Classification

What are some differential diagnoses (DD) of sciatica?

Trauma, PIVD, and canal stenosis.

p.14
Bone Tumors

What is the treatment for multiple enchondromas?

Excision curettage and bone graft.

p.5
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the ulnar paradox?

Less clawing despite a higher lesion when the FDP is paralyzed.

p.28
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is Sprengel’s deformity?

Congenital undescended hypoplastic scapula with restriction of shoulder movements.

p.7
Nerve Injuries Classification

What does Froment’s sign indicate?

Involvement of the Adductor pollicis muscle.

p.6
Specific Nerve Injuries

Which muscle is supplied by the radial nerve in the axilla?

Long head of triceps.

p.32
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What procedure is performed for children aged 1-3 years with CTEV?

Posteromedial soft tissue release (PMSTR) and Turco procedure.

p.3
Nerve Injuries Classification

What characterizes a Sunderland 2 injury?

Injury of the axon.

p.7
Nerve Injuries Classification

Which muscles are affected by Median nerve injuries?

Flexor pollicis, Palmar interossei, Dorsal interossei, Thenar muscles.

p.22
Osteomyelitis

What is a contraindication for VAC (Negative Pressure Wound Therapy) in osteomyelitis?

Presence of eschar tissue or tumor.

p.36
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the purpose of the Adam’s forward bending test?

To differentiate between structural and nonstructural scoliosis.

p.20
Osteomyelitis

Which organism is associated with osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease patients?

Salmonella.

p.8
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is a characteristic sign of long thoracic nerve injury?

Winging of scapula.

p.9
Specific Nerve Injuries

Which nerve is affected in cubital tunnel syndrome?

Ulnar nerve behind the medial condyle of the humerus.

p.15
Bone Tumors

What is the most common true benign bone tumor?

Osteoid Osteoma.

p.38
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the hallmark of Swan neck deformity?

Hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal joint and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint.

p.26
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the last sign of cord edema?

Bowel/bladder involvement.

p.24
Septic Arthritis

What is Tom Smith’s arthritis?

Septic arthritis of the hip in infants under 1 year.

p.1
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis

What is De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?

Stenosing tenosynovitis of tendons passing through the 1st dorsal compartment of the wrist, specifically the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis.

p.30
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the most common congenital anomaly of the foot?

CTEV (Congenital Talipes Equinus Varus).

p.40
Specific Nerve Injuries

Name another differential diagnosis for Chondrocalcinosis.

Hemochromatosis.

p.7
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the primary sign for Radial nerve injury?

Finger & thumb drop.

p.3
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the most common cause of axillary nerve injury?

Shoulder dislocation.

p.22
Osteomyelitis

What is the role of antibiotic cover in the treatment of chronic osteomyelitis?

To prevent infection during surgical procedures.

p.38
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the significance of HLA B27 in spondyloarthropathies?

It is a positive marker often found in patients with these conditions.

p.7
Nerve Injuries Classification

Which test is used to assess the function of the Extensors?

Card test.

p.13
Bone Tumors

What X-ray feature is associated with an aneurysmal bone cyst?

Fallen Leaf Sign.

p.14
Bone Tumors

What genetic mutations are associated with Hereditary Multiple Exostosis?

Mutations in EXT 1 and EXT 2 genes.

p.11
Bone Tumors

Which bone tumors are typically diaphyseal?

Ewing Sarcoma, Osteoid Osteoma, Adamantinoma, and Fibrous Dysplasia.

p.1
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis

Which test is used clinically to diagnose De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?

Finkelstein’s test.

p.14
Bone Tumors

What is the most common bone tumor of the hand and feet?

Enchondroma.

p.31
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the normal Kite's angle in X-ray?

20-40 degrees.

p.24
Tuberculosis of Musculoskeletal System

What is the route of infection for tuberculosis in the musculoskeletal system?

Hematogenous.

p.39
Specific Nerve Injuries

Which clinical test assesses lumbar spine mobility in ankylosing spondylitis?

Schober/modified Schober test.

p.26
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What classification is used for growth plate injuries?

Salter Harris classification.

p.18
Bone Tumors

What genetic translocation is commonly associated with Ewing's Sarcoma?

Translocation t(11:22).

p.25
Tuberculosis of Musculoskeletal System

What causes Potts paraplegia?

Compression of the spinal cord due to TB spine.

p.10
Bone Tumors

What type of bone tumor is associated with skeletal maturity and appears as a soap bubble on imaging?

Giant Cell Tumor.

p.28
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What does Trethowan’s sign indicate in Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis?

Klein’s line does not intersect the head of femur.

p.33
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the most common location for a Prolapsed Intervertebral Disc?

L4-L5 and L5-S1.

p.11
Bone Tumors

What bone tumors are commonly seen in individuals aged 40-60 years?

Chondrosarcoma, Metastasis, Multiple Myeloma, Adamantinoma, and Chordoma.

p.10
Bone Tumors

Which bone tumor is typically found before skeletal maturity?

Chondroblastoma.

p.20
Osteomyelitis

What is the typical clinical hallmark of chronic osteomyelitis?

Discharging sinus.

p.27
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the worst prognosis type of fracture in the SALTER classification?

Type V, which involves impaction or crushing of the growth plate.

p.31
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What does the mnemonic CAVE stand for in primary foot deformities?

Cavus, Adduction, Varus, Equinus.

p.29
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the initial investigation for screening developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?

Ultrasound (USG) for infants under 6 months.

p.36
Pediatric Orthopaedics

How is the severity of scoliosis assessed?

By Cobb’s angle.

p.23
Septic Arthritis

What is the common route of infection for septic arthritis?

Hematogenous.

p.26
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the most common fracture at birth?

Clavicle.

p.27
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is osteochondritis?

An idiopathic inflammation of the bone-cartilage interface that occurs in children and is self-limiting.

p.1
Dupuytren’s Contracture

What are common causes of Dupuytren’s contracture?

Idiopathic (most common), diabetes mellitus, and alcohol use.

p.39
Specific Nerve Injuries

What type of crystals are associated with pseudogout?

Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals.

p.17
Bone Tumors

What X-ray features are associated with hemangioma?

Trabeculations, vertical striations (jail-bar sign), and corduroy appearance.

p.30
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is Blount’s disease associated with?

Bilateral idiopathic genu varum.

p.18
Bone Tumors

What is the most common tumor in the first decade of life?

Ewing's Sarcoma.

p.26
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the most common fracture in children?

Green stick fracture.

p.35
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is spondylolisthesis?

Dislocation of one vertebra over another, commonly at L5-S1.

p.15
Bone Tumors

What distinguishes Osteoblastoma from Osteoid Osteoma?

Central nidus > 2 cm and does not respond to aspirin.

p.26
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What type of fracture is a green stick fracture?

Unicortical fracture where the outer cortex breaks and the inner cortex just bends.

p.35
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the most common location for spondylolysis?

L5.

p.38
Nerve Injuries Classification

What does the 'bamboo spine' appearance indicate on X-ray?

Vertical bridging syndesmophytes associated with ankylosing spondylitis.

p.36
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What are the conservative treatment options for scoliosis?

Braces.

p.38
Bone Tumors

What is the primary cause of gout?

Abnormal purine metabolism leading to increased serum uric acid.

p.36
Osteomyelitis

What is the most common joint disease?

Osteoarthritis (OA).

p.1
Dupuytren’s Contracture

Which joint is most commonly involved in Dupuytren’s contracture?

MCP joint.

p.36
Osteomyelitis

What are the X-ray features of osteoarthritis?

Asymmetric decreased joint space, subchondral sclerosis, subchondral cysts, osteophytes, and loose bodies.

p.3
Specific Nerve Injuries

What are the motor functions of the axillary nerve?

Deltoid: Abduction of shoulder from 15 to 90 degrees; Teres minor: External rotation.

p.2
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is a common example of Neuropraxia?

Tourniquet palsy or Saturday night palsy.

p.34
Nerve Injuries Classification

What reflex corresponds to the L3 root?

Knee reflex (Quadriceps).

p.24
Tuberculosis of Musculoskeletal System

What is the most common site for Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the musculoskeletal system?

Spine (TB spondylitis).

p.27
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What are the characteristics of pediatric bones?

They have increased water content, making them flexible and resilient to stress, and a thick periosteum.

p.11
Bone Tumors

What is a characteristic periosteal reaction seen in bone tumors?

Onion peel, Sunburst, and Codman’s Triangle.

p.3
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the sensory supply area for the musculocutaneous nerve?

Lateral aspect of forearm.

p.31
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is the Ponsetti method's order of manipulation?

Cavus, Adduction, Varus, Equinus.

p.3
Specific Nerve Injuries

What deformity is associated with median nerve injury at the wrist?

Ape thumb deformity.

p.1
Trigger Finger

What is Trigger Finger?

Stenosing tenosynovitis of the flexor tendon at the A1 pulley located at the MCP joint.

p.21
Osteomyelitis

What is the earliest bony change seen on X-ray for osteomyelitis?

Periosteal reaction (7-10 days).

p.3
Specific Nerve Injuries

What deformity is associated with axillary nerve injury?

Shoulder adducted + internally rotated.

p.39
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the main pathology associated with ankylosing spondylitis?

Enthesopathy.

p.1
Dupuytren’s Contracture

What is Dupuytren’s contracture?

Abnormal fibrosis (Collagen 3) of the palmar aponeurosis.

p.17
Bone Tumors

What are the X-ray features of osteosarcoma?

Sun-ray/sunburst appearance and Codman's triangle.

p.18
Bone Tumors

What is the specific marker for Ewing's Sarcoma?

CD99 positive due to MIC-2 gene mutation.

p.35
Pediatric Orthopaedics

What is scoliosis?

Lateral deviation of the spine greater than 10 degrees.

p.35
Specific Nerve Injuries

What are the signs associated with spondylosis?

Scottie dog sign and beheaded Scottish terrier sign.

p.1
Trigger Finger

Which finger is most commonly affected by Trigger Finger?

Ring finger.

p.21
Osteomyelitis

What imaging technique is considered the gold standard for diagnosing osteomyelitis?

Biopsy from the site of infection.

p.21
Osteomyelitis

What are the common complications of osteomyelitis?

Chronic osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, septicemia, and growth disturbance.

p.2
Nerve Injuries Classification

What is the main difference between Axonotmesis and Neurotmesis?

Axonotmesis involves injury to axons with nerve continuity intact, while Neurotmesis involves complete nerve injury with no recovery.

p.18
Bone Tumors

What characteristic appearance is seen on X-ray for Ewing's Sarcoma?

Onion peel appearance or lamellated appearance.

p.35
Specific Nerve Injuries

What does the inverted Napoleon hat sign indicate in X-ray findings?

It is seen in the AP view for certain spinal conditions.

p.39
Specific Nerve Injuries

What is the most commonly involved joint in acute gout?

1st MTP (metatarsophalangeal joint).

p.21
Osteomyelitis

What is the earliest change observed in soft tissue for osteomyelitis?

Soft tissue lucency within 48 hours.

p.21
Osteomyelitis

What is the recommended treatment regimen for osteomyelitis?

2 weeks of parenteral antibiotics followed by 4 weeks of oral antibiotics.

p.21
Osteomyelitis

What is the clinical hallmark of chronic osteomyelitis?

Sinus.

p.36
Osteomyelitis

What are some clinical features of osteoarthritis?

Crepitations, decreased range of movement, muscle wasting (most commonly Vastus medialis), and deformity (genu varus in knee).

p.1
Trigger Finger

What is Gamekeeper’s thumb?

Avulsion of the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb at the 1st MCP joint.

p.21
Osteomyelitis

What is a sequestrum in the context of chronic osteomyelitis?

Dead, dense, devascularized bone surrounded by granulation tissue.

p.21
Osteomyelitis

What are the types of sequestrum?

Coralliform, annular/ring, tubular/diaphyseal, and feathery/flake/coarse.

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