What type of hypersensitivity reaction is erythema multiforme? A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV E) Type V
D) Type IV Explanation: Erythema multiforme is an acute, self-limited, type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
Which cardiac defect is commonly associated with congenital rubella syndrome?
C) Patent ductus arteriosus Explanation: Patent ductus arteriosus is a common cardiac defect associated with congenital rubella syndrome.
1/277
p.8
Skin Lesions Classification

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is erythema multiforme?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Type V

D) Type IV
Explanation: Erythema multiforme is an acute, self-limited, type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

p.31
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which cardiac defect is commonly associated with congenital rubella syndrome?

C) Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation: Patent ductus arteriosus is a common cardiac defect associated with congenital rubella syndrome.

p.2
Skin Lesions Classification

Which of the following best describes the appearance of crusts?
A) Smooth and shiny
B) Matted and rough
C) Fluid-filled and raised
D) Flat and discolored
E) Thick and scaly

B) Matted and rough
Explanation: Crusts appear as matted and rough accumulations on the surface of a weeping lesion, consisting of blood, serum, pus, and epithelial debris.

p.7
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which condition is caused by Coxsackievirus in children?
A) Herpangina
B) Chickenpox
C) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
D) Bullous impetigo
E) Measles

A) Herpangina
Explanation: Coxsackievirus can cause Herpangina and Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease in children.

p.4
Skin Lesions Classification

What is the characteristic color of purpura?
A) Blue
B) Green
C) Red-purple
D) Yellow
E) Brown

C) Red-purple
Explanation: Purpura is characterized by a red-purple color due to bleeding into the skin.

p.4
Skin Lesions Classification

Which of the following can describe purpura?
A) Only flat
B) Only palpable
C) Flat or palpable
D) Only raised
E) Only indented

C) Flat or palpable
Explanation: Purpura can be either flat or palpable, indicating the presence of bleeding into the skin.

p.5
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What is the 'Second disease' that presents with a fever and maculopapular skin rash?
A) Measles
B) Scarlet Fever
C) Rubella
D) Erythema infectiosum
E) Roseola Infantum

B) Scarlet Fever
Explanation: Scarlet Fever is known as the 'Second disease' and is characterized by a fever and maculopapular skin rash.

p.8
Skin Lesions Classification

What is Stevens-Johnson syndrome primarily caused by?
A) Genetic mutations
B) Environmental factors
C) Medications and infections
D) Autoimmune diseases
E) Nutritional deficiencies

C) Medications and infections
Explanation: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is primarily precipitated by medications (e.g., NSAIDs, certain antibiotics, antiepileptics) or, less commonly, viral and bacterial infections (e.g., mycoplasma, herpes simplex virus).

p.9
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which virus is associated with congenital infections that can cause fever with a purpuric rash?
A) Varicella-Zoster virus
B) Human papillomavirus
C) Congenital rubella
D) Norovirus
E) Parvovirus B19

C) Congenital rubella
Explanation: Congenital rubella is specifically mentioned as a virus that can cause fever with a purpuric rash, particularly in congenital infections.

p.8
Skin Lesions Classification

What distinguishes erythema multiforme minor from erythema multiforme major?
A) Presence of genetic mutations
B) Extent of mucosal involvement
C) Type of medication trigger
D) Duration of the reaction
E) Presence of bacterial infection

B) Extent of mucosal involvement
Explanation: Erythema multiforme minor manifests with localized target lesions without mucosal involvement, while erythema multiforme major involves extensive mucosal compromise that is potentially life-threatening.

p.53
Kawasaki Disease Overview

Which of the following symptoms may precede the onset of Kawasaki disease?
A) Fatigue, diarrhea, abdominal pain, arthritis
B) Cough, shortness of breath, chest pain
C) Headache, dizziness, blurred vision
D) Nausea, vomiting, weight loss
E) Rash, itching, swelling

A) Fatigue, diarrhea, abdominal pain, arthritis
Explanation: Nonspecific symptoms such as fatigue, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and arthritis may precede the onset of Kawasaki disease.

p.3
Skin Lesions Classification

How can raised end-stage scars be described?
A) Thin and atrophic
B) Depressed and atrophic
C) Raised and hypertrophic
D) Flat and pliable
E) None of the above

C) Raised and hypertrophic
Explanation: Raised end-stage scars are described as hypertrophic, indicating an overgrowth of tissue.

p.3
Skin Lesions Classification

Which term describes scars that are thin, depressed, and atrophic?
A) Hypertrophic
B) Pliable
C) Atrophic
D) Ulcerative
E) None of the above

C) Atrophic
Explanation: Scars that are thin, depressed, and atrophic are referred to as atrophic scars.

p.4
Skin Lesions Classification

What is the size range of petechiae?
A) <1 mm
B) <2-3 mm
C) <5 mm
D) <10 mm
E) <15 mm

B) <2-3 mm
Explanation: Petechiae are small purpura that measure less than 2-3 mm in size.

p.2
Skin Lesions Classification

What type of lesion is associated with the formation of crusts?
A) Non-weeping lesion
B) Weeping lesion
C) Flat lesion
D) Raised lesion
E) Fluid-filled lesion

B) Weeping lesion
Explanation: Crusts form on the surface of a weeping lesion, where there is an accumulation of blood, serum, pus, and epithelial debris.

p.2
Skin Lesions Classification

What is the primary characteristic of a secondary skin lesion like a crust?
A) It is a primary lesion
B) It is a result of an underlying condition
C) It is a smooth and shiny lesion
D) It is a fluid-filled blister
E) It is a thickened, rough area of skin

B) It is a result of an underlying condition
Explanation: Secondary skin lesions like crusts are typically the result of an underlying condition, such as a weeping lesion, and involve the accumulation of various substances like blood, serum, pus, and epithelial debris.

p.5
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

Which disease is referred to as the 'Third disease' and involves a fever with a maculopapular rash?
A) Measles
B) Scarlet Fever
C) Rubella
D) Erythema infectiosum
E) Roseola Infantum

C) Rubella
Explanation: Rubella, also known as German Measles, is referred to as the 'Third disease' and presents with a fever and maculopapular rash.

p.2
Skin Lesions Classification

What are crusts in the context of secondary skin lesions?
A) Raised, red patches of skin
B) Matted, retained accumulations of blood, serum, pus, and epithelial debris on the surface of a weeping lesion
C) Smooth, flat areas of discolored skin
D) Fluid-filled blisters
E) Thickened, rough areas of skin

B) Matted, retained accumulations of blood, serum, pus, and epithelial debris on the surface of a weeping lesion
Explanation: Crusts are secondary skin lesions characterized by matted, retained accumulations of blood, serum, pus, and epithelial debris on the surface of a weeping lesion.

p.5
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

Erythema infectiosum, characterized by a fever and maculopapular rash, is also known as which disease?
A) First disease
B) Second disease
C) Third disease
D) Fifth disease
E) Sixth disease

D) Fifth disease
Explanation: Erythema infectiosum is also known as the 'Fifth disease' and is characterized by a fever and maculopapular rash.

p.7
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which bacterial infection can cause bullous impetigo in children?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Coxsackievirus
D) Varicella-Zoster Virus
E) Epstein-Barr Virus

B) Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus is the bacterium responsible for causing bullous impetigo in children.

p.8
Skin Lesions Classification

When is Stevens-Johnson syndrome referred to as toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)?
A) When it affects more than 10% of the skin
B) When it affects more than 20% of the skin
C) When it affects more than 30% of the skin
D) When it affects more than 40% of the skin
E) When it affects more than 50% of the skin

C) When it affects more than 30% of the skin
Explanation: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is referred to as toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) when more than 30% of the skin is affected.

p.27
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

Which of the following is NOT a complication of German measles (rubella)?
A) Otitis media
B) Sinusitis
C) Pharyngitis
D) Viral encephalitis
E) Hepatitis

E) Hepatitis
Explanation: Hepatitis is not listed as a complication of German measles (rubella). The complications include otitis media, sinusitis, pharyngitis, croup, laryngitis, bronchitis, pneumonia, secondary bacterial infection, viral encephalitis, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), arthritis, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AHA), and congenital rubella syndrome.

p.27
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is a common hematological finding in a complete blood count (CBC) for measles virus?
A) Leukocytosis with relative lymphocytopenia
B) Leukocytopenia with relative lymphocytosis
C) Thrombocytosis with relative lymphocytopenia
D) Erythrocytosis with relative lymphocytopenia
E) Leukocytosis with relative lymphocytosis

B) Leukocytopenia with relative lymphocytosis
Explanation: A common hematological finding in a complete blood count (CBC) for measles virus is leukocytopenia with relative lymphocytosis and increased plasma cells.

p.6
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What is the primary treatment for Kawasaki disease?
A) Antibiotics
B) Antiviral medications
C) Intravenous immunoglobulins (IVIG) and aspirin
D) Steroids
E) Chemotherapy

C) Intravenous immunoglobulins (IVIG) and aspirin
Explanation: Treatment with intravenous immunoglobulins (IVIG) and aspirin is essential and should be initiated as soon as possible after diagnosis.

p.3
Skin Lesions Classification

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of end-stage scars?
A) Thin and atrophic
B) Raised and hypertrophic
C) Flat and pliable
D) Deep and ulcerative
E) Depressed and atrophic

D) Deep and ulcerative
Explanation: End-stage scars are described as thin, depressed, and atrophic; raised and hypertrophic; or flat and pliable. They are not characterized as deep and ulcerative.

p.2
Skin Lesions Classification

Which components are typically found in crusts?
A) Only blood
B) Only serum
C) Blood, serum, pus, and epithelial debris
D) Only pus
E) Only epithelial debris

C) Blood, serum, pus, and epithelial debris
Explanation: Crusts are composed of matted, retained accumulations of blood, serum, pus, and epithelial debris on the surface of a weeping lesion.

p.53
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What is a key characteristic of the fever associated with Kawasaki disease?
A) Low-grade fever lasting 1-2 days
B) High fever (>39 C) lasting more than 5 days
C) Intermittent fever with chills
D) Fever that responds well to usual treatment
E) Fever accompanied by a rash

B) High fever (>39 C) lasting more than 5 days
Explanation: A high fever greater than 39°C that lasts more than 5 days and does not respond to usual treatment is a key characteristic of Kawasaki disease.

p.6
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What is a characteristic symptom of Kawasaki disease?
A) High fever
B) Low blood pressure
C) Severe headache
D) Joint pain
E) Muscle weakness

A) High fever
Explanation: Kawasaki disease is characterized by high fever, among other symptoms.

p.18
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

How should the eyes be cared for in a patient with measles?
A) Eye ointment
B) Eye surgery
C) Eye drops with antibiotics
D) Laser treatment
E) Eye patches

A) Eye ointment
Explanation: Care of the eyes in a patient with measles involves the use of eye ointment to prevent complications.

p.6
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

Which areas of the body are typically affected by Erythema marginatum?
A) Face and neck
B) Trunk and limbs
C) Hands and feet
D) Scalp and back
E) Chest and abdomen

B) Trunk and limbs
Explanation: Erythema marginatum typically affects the trunk and limbs, while the face is spared.

p.6
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What is a common diagnostic finding in Kawasaki disease?
A) Low ESR
B) Elevated ESR
C) Normal echocardiography
D) Low white blood cell count
E) High platelet count

B) Elevated ESR
Explanation: Kawasaki disease is supported by findings such as elevated ESR or evidence of cardiac involvement on echocardiography.

p.29
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

Is passive immunization with immunoglobulin recommended for postexposure prophylaxis of rubella?
A) Yes, always
B) Only for children
C) Only for elderly
D) No, it is not recommended
E) Only for healthcare workers

D) No, it is not recommended
Explanation: Passive immunization with immunoglobulin is not recommended for postexposure prophylaxis of rubella.

p.28
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

How can German measles be differentiated from measles based on the rash?
A) German measles rash is confluent
B) Measles rash is scattered
C) German measles rash is scattered and not confluent
D) Measles rash is rose-colored
E) German measles rash starts on the trunk

C) German measles rash is scattered and not confluent
Explanation: German measles rash is scattered and not confluent, whereas measles rash is confluent.

p.54
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What is a characteristic feature of oropharyngeal mucositis in Kawasaki disease?
A) White patches on the tongue
B) Erythema and swelling of the tongue (strawberry tongue)
C) Ulcers on the tongue
D) Black discoloration of the tongue
E) Smooth and pale tongue

B) Erythema and swelling of the tongue (strawberry tongue)
Explanation: Oropharyngeal mucositis in Kawasaki disease includes erythema and swelling of the tongue, often referred to as 'strawberry tongue', along with cracked and red lips.

p.3
Skin Lesions Classification

What are the possible characteristics of end-stage scars?
A) Thin, depressed, and atrophic
B) Raised and hypertrophic
C) Flat and pliable
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

D) All of the above
Explanation: End-stage scars can exhibit various characteristics, including being thin, depressed, and atrophic; raised and hypertrophic; or flat and pliable.

p.4
Skin Lesions Classification

What term is used to describe patches of bleeding into the skin that are greater than 1 cm?
A) Petechiae
B) Purpura
C) Ecchymosis
D) Hematoma
E) Vesicle

C) Ecchymosis
Explanation: Ecchymosis refers to patches of bleeding into the skin that are greater than 1 cm in size.

p.4
Skin Lesions Classification

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of purpura?
A) Red-purple color
B) Flat or palpable
C) Size greater than 1 cm
D) Bleeding into the skin
E) Can be small or large

C) Size greater than 1 cm
Explanation: Purpura can vary in size but are not specifically defined by being greater than 1 cm; that characteristic is specific to ecchymosis.

p.5
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Which disease is known as the 'First disease' and is characterized by a fever with a maculopapular skin rash?
A) Scarlet Fever
B) Rubella
C) Measles
D) Erythema infectiosum
E) Roseola Infantum

C) Measles
Explanation: Measles is referred to as the 'First disease' and is characterized by a fever with a maculopapular skin rash.

p.5
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which of the following viruses can cause a fever with a maculopapular rash?
A) HHV-6
B) HHV-7
C) Enteroviruses
D) HHV-4
E) All of the above

E) All of the above
Explanation: HHV-6, HHV-7, Enteroviruses, and HHV-4 can all cause a fever with a maculopapular rash.

p.8
Skin Lesions Classification

Which of the following is NOT a common trigger for erythema multiforme?
A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B) Herpes simplex virus
C) Histoplasmosis
D) NSAIDs
E) Genetic mutations

E) Genetic mutations
Explanation: Erythema multiforme is associated with infections (e.g., Mycoplasma pneumoniae, herpes simplex virus, histoplasmosis) and medications (e.g., NSAIDs, sulfonamides, antiepileptics), but not genetic mutations.

p.9
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which virus listed is a common cause of hemorrhagic fever that can present with fever and a purpuric rash?
A) Norovirus
B) Hemorrhagic fever viruses
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Hepatitis A virus
E) Varicella-Zoster virus

B) Hemorrhagic fever viruses
Explanation: Hemorrhagic fever viruses are known to cause fever with a purpuric rash, unlike Norovirus, Human papillomavirus, Hepatitis A, and Varicella-Zoster virus.

p.35
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which sample types can be used for viral culture in the diagnosis of congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Saliva and tears
B) Nasopharynx, blood, and CSF
C) Hair and nails
D) Skin and muscle tissue
E) Bone marrow and lymph nodes

B) Nasopharynx, blood, and CSF
Explanation: Viral culture for diagnosing congenital rubella syndrome can be performed using samples from the nasopharynx, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

p.6
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What is Kawasaki disease (KD)?
A) A chronic skin condition
B) An acute, necrotizing vasculitis of unknown etiology
C) A bacterial infection
D) A type of cancer
E) A genetic disorder

B) An acute, necrotizing vasculitis of unknown etiology
Explanation: Kawasaki disease (KD) is described as an acute, necrotizing vasculitis of unknown etiology, primarily affecting children under the age of five.

p.38
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What is one of the primary methods to prevent congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Immunization of seronegative women before pregnancy
B) Regular exercise during pregnancy
C) Avoiding seafood during pregnancy
D) Taking vitamin supplements
E) Drinking plenty of water

A) Immunization of seronegative women before pregnancy
Explanation: Immunizing seronegative women before pregnancy is a key preventive measure to avoid congenital rubella syndrome.

p.6
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What is Erythema marginatum?
A) A type of cancer
B) A dermatologic manifestation of rheumatic fever
C) A bacterial infection
D) A genetic disorder
E) A chronic skin condition

B) A dermatologic manifestation of rheumatic fever
Explanation: Erythema marginatum is a dermatologic manifestation of rheumatic fever.

p.3
Skin Lesions Classification

What is a characteristic of flat end-stage scars?
A) Hypertrophic
B) Pliable
C) Atrophic
D) Depressed
E) None of the above

B) Pliable
Explanation: Flat end-stage scars are described as pliable, meaning they are flexible and not raised or depressed.

p.9
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which of the following viruses is known to cause fever with a purpuric rash?
A) Influenza virus
B) Adenovirus
C) Rhinovirus
D) Hepatitis B virus
E) Epstein-Barr virus

B) Adenovirus
Explanation: Adenovirus is listed as one of the viruses that can cause fever with a purpuric rash, distinguishing it from other common viruses like Influenza, Rhinovirus, Hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus.

p.21
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

What is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?
A) A bacterial infection of the brain
B) A viral infection of the liver
C) A lethal, generalized, demyelinating inflammation of the brain caused by persistent measles virus infection
D) A fungal infection of the lungs
E) A parasitic infection of the intestines

C) A lethal, generalized, demyelinating inflammation of the brain caused by persistent measles virus infection
Explanation: SSPE is defined as a lethal, generalized, demyelinating inflammation of the brain caused by persistent measles virus infection.

p.18
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is one of the primary treatments for measles?
A) Isolation of the patient till rash disappears
B) Administration of antibiotics
C) Surgery
D) Chemotherapy
E) Radiation therapy

A) Isolation of the patient till rash disappears
Explanation: One of the primary treatments for measles is to isolate the patient until the rash disappears to prevent the spread of the virus.

p.38
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What precaution should be taken when infants with congenital rubella syndrome are sent home?
A) They should be kept away from susceptible pregnant women
B) They should be given a special diet
C) They should be exposed to fresh air
D) They should be given extra sleep
E) They should be bathed frequently

A) They should be kept away from susceptible pregnant women
Explanation: Infants with congenital rubella syndrome should be kept away from susceptible pregnant women when sent home to prevent transmission of the virus.

p.39
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What is the typical incubation period for Scarlet Fever?
A) 1-2 days
B) 2-6 days
C) 7-14 days
D) 14-21 days
E) 21-28 days

B) 2-6 days
Explanation: The incubation period for Scarlet Fever typically ranges from 2 to 6 days.

p.36
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which samples are used for diagnosing congenital rubella syndrome in a fetus?
A) Blood and urine samples
B) Chorionic villi and amniotic fluid samples
C) Saliva and stool samples
D) Skin and hair samples
E) Bone marrow and cerebrospinal fluid samples

B) Chorionic villi and amniotic fluid samples
Explanation: Chorionic villi and amniotic fluid samples are used for diagnosing congenital rubella syndrome in a fetus.

p.31
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What is the classic triad of defects associated with congenital rubella syndrome?

A) Sensorineural hearing loss, cataracts, and cardiac defects
Explanation: The classic triad of defects in congenital rubella syndrome includes sensorineural hearing loss, cataracts, and cardiac defects such as patent ductus arteriosus.

p.10
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which bacterial infection is commonly associated with infective endocarditis and a petechial-purpuric rash?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Streptococcus viridans
D) Mycobacterium leprae
E) Bacillus anthracis

C) Streptococcus viridans
Explanation: Streptococcus viridans is commonly associated with infective endocarditis, which can present with a petechial-purpuric rash.

p.10
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which of the following bacteria is NOT typically associated with sepsis and a petechial-purpuric rash?
A) Neisseria meningitidis
B) Haemophilus influenzae type b
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

E) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not typically associated with sepsis and a petechial-purpuric rash, unlike Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae type b, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

p.52
Kawasaki Disease Overview

Which gender is slightly more affected by Kawasaki disease?
A) Females
B) Males
C) Both equally
D) Neither
E) Varies by region

B) Males
Explanation: Males are slightly more affected by Kawasaki disease compared to females.

p.7
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which virus is responsible for Chickenpox in children?
A) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV-1, HSV-2)
B) Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)
C) Coxsackievirus
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)

B) Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)
Explanation: Chickenpox is caused by the Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV), also known as Human Herpesvirus 3 (HHV-3).

p.5
Roseola Infantum Presentation

Roseola Infantum, which presents with a fever and maculopapular rash, is also known as which disease?
A) First disease
B) Second disease
C) Third disease
D) Fifth disease
E) Sixth disease

E) Sixth disease
Explanation: Roseola Infantum, also known as 'erythema sabitum', is referred to as the 'Sixth disease' and is characterized by a fever and maculopapular rash.

p.6
Kawasaki Disease Overview

Which population is more commonly affected by Kawasaki disease?
A) African descent
B) European descent
C) Asian descent
D) South American descent
E) North American descent

C) Asian descent
Explanation: Kawasaki disease is more common among children of Asian descent.

p.18
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Which of the following is part of the supportive treatment for measles?
A) Bed rest and antipyretic with paracetamol
B) Administration of antiviral drugs
C) Physical therapy
D) Blood transfusion
E) Chemotherapy

A) Bed rest and antipyretic with paracetamol
Explanation: Supportive treatment for measles includes bed rest, antipyretic with paracetamol, good hydration, and nutrition.

p.50
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What can be used to treat parvovirus B19-associated arthritis in erythema infectiosum?
A) High-dose steroids
B) Analgesics or short course of low-dose prednisone
C) Antiviral medication
D) Antibiotics
E) Chemotherapy

B) Analgesics or short course of low-dose prednisone
Explanation: Analgesics or a short course of low-dose prednisone can be used to treat arthritis associated with parvovirus B19 in erythema infectiosum.

p.34
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What is a characteristic skin manifestation of congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Erythema marginatum
B) Blueberry muffin rash
C) Erythema nodosum
D) Urticaria
E) Psoriasis

B) Blueberry muffin rash
Explanation: Petechiae and purpura, often referred to as a 'blueberry muffin rash,' are characteristic skin manifestations of congenital rubella syndrome.

p.16
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

How can the virus RNA of measles be identified?
A) ELISA
B) Western Blot
C) RT-PCR
D) Immunofluorescence
E) Flow Cytometry

C) RT-PCR
Explanation: The identification of the virus RNA in measles can be done directly via RT-PCR (Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction).

p.16
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

When do measles IgM antibodies appear in doubtful cases?
A) Within 1-2 hours of the rash
B) Within 1-2 days of the rash
C) Within 1-2 weeks of the rash
D) Within 1-2 months of the rash
E) Within 1-2 years of the rash

B) Within 1-2 days of the rash
Explanation: In doubtful cases, measles IgM antibodies can be estimated as they appear within 1-2 days of the rash.

p.29
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

What should all pregnant women undergo to determine their immune status to rubella?
A) Blood pressure test
B) Prenatal serological testing
C) Ultrasound
D) X-ray
E) MRI scan

B) Prenatal serological testing
Explanation: All pregnant women should have prenatal serological testing to determine their immune status to rubella.

p.29
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

After receiving the rubella-containing vaccine, how long should women avoid pregnancy?
A) 7 days
B) 14 days
C) 21 days
D) 28 days
E) 35 days

D) 28 days
Explanation: Women are cautioned to avoid pregnancy for 28 days after receiving the rubella-containing vaccine.

p.28
Roseola Infantum Presentation

How can measles be differentiated from roseola infantum based on the rash distribution?
A) Measles rash starts on the trunk
B) Roseola infantum rash starts on the face
C) Measles rash starts on the cheeks
D) Roseola infantum rash starts on the cheeks
E) Measles rash starts on the legs

D) Roseola infantum rash starts on the cheeks
Explanation: Roseola infantum rash starts on the cheeks, whereas measles rash starts on the face and spreads downwards.

p.20
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Which group is likely to experience Modified Measles?
A) Adults with no vaccination
B) Persons vaccinated before 12 months of age
C) Persons with no exposure to measles
D) Adults with full vaccination
E) Persons with no immune serum globulin

B) Persons vaccinated before 12 months of age
Explanation: Modified Measles occurs in individuals with partial protection against measles, such as those vaccinated before 12 months of age or those who received immune serum globulin.

p.20
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Which of the following is NOT a cause of Modified Measles?
A) Vaccination before 12 months of age
B) Co-administration of immune serum globulin
C) Transplacentally acquired antibody
D) Receiving immunoglobulin
E) Full exposure to the measles virus

E) Full exposure to the measles virus
Explanation: Modified Measles is caused by partial protection against measles, not by full exposure to the virus.

p.43
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

When is a patient with scarlet fever no longer infectious after starting antibiotic treatment?
A) After 12 hours
B) After 24 hours
C) After 48 hours
D) After 72 hours
E) After 1 week

B) After 24 hours
Explanation: A patient with scarlet fever is no longer infectious after 24 hours of antibiotic treatment and may return to daycare or school.

p.47
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What is the initial phase of Erythema infectiosum characterized by?
A) Severe fever and chills
B) Mild non-specific illness with mild fever, malaise, headache, and myalgia
C) Severe rash and high fever
D) Intense itching and rash
E) Severe joint pain and swelling

B) Mild non-specific illness with mild fever, malaise, headache, and myalgia
Explanation: The initial phase of Erythema infectiosum, also known as the viremia phase, is characterized by mild non-specific symptoms such as mild fever, malaise, headache, and myalgia for 4-5 days.

p.7
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

What is a characteristic feature of Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
A) Vesicular rash
B) Scaly patches
C) Bullous lesions
D) Erythematous rash
E) Petechial rash

C) Bullous lesions
Explanation: Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is characterized by bullous lesions and widespread skin peeling.

p.5
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which virus is associated with Infectious Mononucleosis and can cause a fever with a maculopapular rash?
A) HHV-6
B) HHV-7
C) HHV-4
D) Enteroviruses
E) Adenoviruses

C) HHV-4
Explanation: HHV-4, also known as Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV), is associated with Infectious Mononucleosis and can cause a fever with a maculopapular rash.

p.9
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which of the following is NOT a virus that causes fever with a purpuric rash?
A) Enterovirus
B) HIV
C) Hemorrhagic fever viruses
D) Herpes simplex virus
E) Congenital CMV

D) Herpes simplex virus
Explanation: Herpes simplex virus is not listed among the viruses that cause fever with a purpuric rash, unlike Enterovirus, HIV, Hemorrhagic fever viruses, and Congenital CMV.

p.35
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What does the detection of rubella-specific IgM antibody usually indicate?
A) Chronic infection
B) Recent infection
C) Past infection
D) No infection
E) Vaccination response

B) Recent infection
Explanation: The detection of rubella-specific IgM antibody usually indicates a recent infection with the rubella virus.

p.21
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

Which demographic is primarily affected by SSPE?
A) Females between 5-7 years of age
B) Males between 8-11 years of age
C) Adults over 30 years of age
D) Infants under 1 year of age
E) Elderly over 65 years of age

B) Males between 8-11 years of age
Explanation: SSPE primarily affects males between 8-11 years of age.

p.6
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What is the most concerning manifestation of Kawasaki disease?
A) Skin rash
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Coronary artery aneurysms
D) Cervical lymphadenopathy
E) Erythema of the distal extremities

C) Coronary artery aneurysms
Explanation: The most concerning manifestation of Kawasaki disease is coronary artery aneurysms, which can lead to myocardial infarction or arrhythmias.

p.6
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What is a distinguishing feature of the rash in Erythema marginatum?
A) It is itchy and painful
B) It has a well-defined outer border and central clearing
C) It is always present on the face
D) It causes blisters
E) It is associated with high fever

B) It has a well-defined outer border and central clearing
Explanation: Erythema marginatum appears as a centrifugally expanding pink or light red rash with a well-defined outer border and central clearing.

p.17
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Which gastrointestinal complication can occur due to measles?
A) Keratitis
B) Acute appendicitis
C) Viral myocarditis
D) Optic neuritis
E) Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)

B) Acute appendicitis
Explanation: Acute appendicitis is a gastrointestinal complication of measles, along with mouth ulcers, gastroenteritis, and mesenteric lymphadenitis.

p.39
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

Which of the following is a common symptom of Scarlet Fever?
A) Jaundice
B) Erythematous, sandpaper-like rash
C) Blurred vision
D) Joint pain
E) Hair loss

B) Erythematous, sandpaper-like rash
Explanation: Patients with Scarlet Fever commonly present with an erythematous, sandpaper-like rash, among other symptoms.

p.34
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which of the following is an early feature of congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Microcephaly
B) Skeletal abnormalities
C) Hepatosplenomegaly
D) Endocrine disorders
E) Vascular disease

C) Hepatosplenomegaly
Explanation: Hepatosplenomegaly is listed as an early feature of congenital rubella syndrome, along with jaundice, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, petechiae and purpura (blueberry muffin rash), and transient meningitis and/or encephalitis.

p.34
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which endocrine disorder is associated with late features of congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Addison's disease
B) Diabetes
C) Cushing's syndrome
D) Hyperparathyroidism
E) Hypogonadism

B) Diabetes
Explanation: Diabetes is one of the endocrine disorders associated with the late features of congenital rubella syndrome, along with thyroid dysfunction.

p.34
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which of the following is NOT an early feature of congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Jaundice
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Pneumonia
D) Microcephaly
E) Thrombocytopenia

D) Microcephaly
Explanation: Microcephaly is a late feature of congenital rubella syndrome, while jaundice, hemolytic anemia, pneumonia, and thrombocytopenia are early features.

p.52
Kawasaki Disease Overview

Which arteries are primarily affected by Kawasaki disease?
A) Renal arteries
B) Pulmonary arteries
C) Coronary arteries
D) Carotid arteries
E) Femoral arteries

C) Coronary arteries
Explanation: Kawasaki disease tends to affect the coronary arteries, which are crucial for supplying blood to the heart muscle.

p.31
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What type of rash is commonly seen in congenital rubella syndrome?

B) Blueberry muffin rash
Explanation: A blueberry muffin rash is a characteristic feature of congenital rubella syndrome, often presenting as purpura/petechiae.

p.20
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is a characteristic of Black measles?
A) Mild rash
B) Petechial or hemorrhagic rash
C) No rash
D) Itchy rash
E) Blistering rash

B) Petechial or hemorrhagic rash
Explanation: Black measles is a severe form of measles characterized by a petechial or hemorrhagic rash, indicating bleeding under the skin.

p.43
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What alternative antibiotics can be given to hypersensitive patients for scarlet fever?
A) Amoxicillin or ciprofloxacin
B) Erythromycin for 10 days or azithromycin for 5 days
C) Tetracycline or doxycycline
D) Metronidazole or clindamycin
E) Vancomycin or gentamicin

B) Erythromycin for 10 days or azithromycin for 5 days
Explanation: For patients hypersensitive to penicillin, erythromycin can be given for 10 days or azithromycin for 5 days as alternative treatments for scarlet fever.

p.7
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which virus is associated with Herpes Simplex Virus infections in children?
A) HSV-1 and HSV-2
B) VZV
C) Coxsackievirus
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

A) HSV-1 and HSV-2
Explanation: Herpes Simplex Virus infections in children are caused by HSV-1 and HSV-2.

p.9
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Which virus is known to cause atypical measles that can present with fever and a purpuric rash?
A) Influenza virus
B) Atypical measles
C) Hepatitis C virus
D) Epstein-Barr virus
E) Human papillomavirus

B) Atypical measles
Explanation: Atypical measles is specifically mentioned as a condition that can cause fever with a purpuric rash, distinguishing it from other viruses like Influenza, Hepatitis C, Epstein-Barr, and Human papillomavirus.

p.35
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which method is used to detect rubella RNA in the diagnosis of congenital rubella syndrome?
A) ELISA
B) RT-PCR
C) Western Blot
D) Immunofluorescence
E) Flow Cytometry

B) RT-PCR
Explanation: RT-PCR (Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction) is used to detect rubella RNA in samples such as throat swab, CSF, blood, and urine.

p.27
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

Which of the following is a neurological complication of German measles (rubella)?
A) Otitis media
B) Sinusitis
C) Viral encephalitis
D) Arthritis
E) Pneumonia

C) Viral encephalitis
Explanation: Viral encephalitis is a neurological complication of German measles (rubella). Other complications include otitis media, sinusitis, pharyngitis, croup, laryngitis, bronchitis, pneumonia, secondary bacterial infection, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), arthritis, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AHA), and congenital rubella syndrome.

p.27
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

Which of the following is a complication of German measles (rubella) that affects the joints?
A) Otitis media
B) Sinusitis
C) Pharyngitis
D) Arthritis
E) Pneumonia

D) Arthritis
Explanation: Arthritis is a complication of German measles (rubella) that affects the joints. Other complications include otitis media, sinusitis, pharyngitis, croup, laryngitis, bronchitis, pneumonia, secondary bacterial infection, viral encephalitis, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AHA), and congenital rubella syndrome.

p.44
Roseola Infantum Presentation

What causes Roseola Infantum?
A) Bacteria
B) Human herpes 6 or 7 viruses
C) Fungi
D) Parasites
E) Prions

B) Human herpes 6 or 7 viruses
Explanation: Roseola Infantum is caused by human herpes 6 or 7 viruses, which are enveloped double-stranded DNA viruses.

p.44
Roseola Infantum Presentation

What is the typical incubation period for Roseola Infantum?
A) 1-2 days
B) 1-2 weeks
C) 3-4 weeks
D) 1-2 months
E) 3-4 days

B) 1-2 weeks
Explanation: The incubation period for Roseola Infantum is typically 1-2 weeks, which is the time between exposure to the virus and the onset of symptoms.

p.16
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What can be estimated in doubtful cases of measles?
A) Measles IgG antibodies
B) Measles IgM antibodies
C) Measles DNA
D) Measles RNA
E) Measles protein levels

B) Measles IgM antibodies
Explanation: In doubtful cases, measles IgM antibodies can be estimated. These antibodies appear within 1-2 days of the rash and persist for 1-2 months in unimmunized persons.

p.10
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which of the following bacteria can cause sepsis with a petechial-purpuric rash?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E) Clostridium difficile

C) Neisseria meningitidis
Explanation: Neisseria meningitidis is one of the bacteria that can cause sepsis with a petechial-purpuric rash, along with other bacteria such as gonococcal, pneumococcal, and H. influenzae type b.

p.36
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

How long is an infant with congenital rubella syndrome infectious after birth?
A) 1 month
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
E) 2 years

D) 1 year
Explanation: An infant with congenital rubella syndrome is infectious for 1 year after birth.

p.52
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What type of vasculitis is Kawasaki disease?
A) Granulomatous vasculitis
B) Necrotizing vasculitis
C) Allergic vasculitis
D) Leukocytoclastic vasculitis
E) Giant cell arteritis

B) Necrotizing vasculitis
Explanation: Kawasaki disease is characterized as an acute necrotizing vasculitis, which affects the walls of medium-sized arteries throughout the body.

p.52
Kawasaki Disease Overview

In which populations is Kawasaki disease more common?
A) African children
B) European children
C) Japanese and Korean children
D) South American children
E) Australian children

C) Japanese and Korean children
Explanation: Kawasaki disease is more common in Japanese and Korean children, indicating a higher prevalence in these populations.

p.54
Kawasaki Disease Overview

Which type of lymphadenopathy is commonly seen in Kawasaki disease?
A) Bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy
B) Unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy
C) Inguinal lymphadenopathy
D) Axillary lymphadenopathy
E) Generalized lymphadenopathy

B) Unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy
Explanation: Kawasaki disease typically presents with cervical lymphadenopathy, which is mostly unilateral, helping to differentiate it from other diseases with bilateral or generalized lymphadenopathy.

p.54
Kawasaki Disease Overview

Where does the polymorphous rash in Kawasaki disease typically originate?
A) On the face
B) On the trunk
C) On the arms
D) On the legs
E) On the scalp

B) On the trunk
Explanation: The polymorphous rash associated with Kawasaki disease usually originates on the trunk, which is a key diagnostic feature.

p.54
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What happens to the hands and feet during the first week of Kawasaki disease?
A) They become cold and pale
B) They develop erythema and edema
C) They develop blisters
D) They become numb
E) They develop ulcers

B) They develop erythema and edema
Explanation: During the first week of Kawasaki disease, patients often experience erythema and edema of the hands and feet, including the palms and soles.

p.35
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

How can the measurement of rubella-specific IgG over several months be used in the diagnosis of congenital rubella syndrome?
A) To confirm chronic infection
B) To confirm recent infection
C) To confirm past infection
D) To confirm vaccination status
E) To confirm the presence of antibodies

B) To confirm recent infection
Explanation: Measurement of rubella-specific IgG over several months can be confirmatory for recent infection, as it helps track the immune response over time.

p.27
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Which of the following is used to diagnose measles virus?
A) IgM for rubella in serum
B) IgG for rubella in serum
C) IgA for rubella in serum
D) IgE for rubella in serum
E) IgD for rubella in serum

A) IgM for rubella in serum
Explanation: IgM for rubella in serum is used to diagnose the measles virus. Other diagnostic methods include clinical diagnosis and complete blood count (CBC) showing leukocytopenia with relative lymphocytosis and increased plasma cells.

p.44
Roseola Infantum Presentation

How is Roseola Infantum transmitted?
A) Through contaminated food
B) Through droplet infection
C) Through direct contact with blood
D) Through insect bites
E) Through contaminated water

B) Through droplet infection
Explanation: Roseola Infantum is transmitted through droplet infection, which involves the spread of the virus via respiratory droplets.

p.17
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is a neurological complication associated with measles?
A) Bronchitis
B) Keratitis
C) Viral encephalitis
D) Gastroenteritis
E) Otitis media

C) Viral encephalitis
Explanation: Viral encephalitis is a neurological complication of measles, along with subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) and Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS).

p.36
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which method is used to detect rubella RNA in the diagnosis of congenital rubella syndrome?
A) ELISA
B) Western Blot
C) PCR
D) Flow Cytometry
E) Immunohistochemistry

C) PCR
Explanation: PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is used to detect rubella RNA in the diagnosis of congenital rubella syndrome.

p.36
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which antibody is tested for in the serology of congenital rubella syndrome?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
E) IgD

D) IgM
Explanation: IgM antibody serology is used in the diagnosis of congenital rubella syndrome.

p.28
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

What is the recommended isolation period for a patient with German measles?
A) Until the fever subsides
B) Until the rash appears
C) From rash onset till 7 days
D) For 14 days
E) Until the cough disappears

C) From rash onset till 7 days
Explanation: Patients with German measles should be isolated from the onset of the rash until 7 days after to prevent the spread of the infection.

p.43
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What is included in the supportive treatment for scarlet fever?
A) Antibiotics and surgery
B) Bed rest and antipyretic with paracetamol
C) Chemotherapy and radiation
D) Physical therapy and exercise
E) Antiviral medication and hydration

B) Bed rest and antipyretic with paracetamol
Explanation: Supportive treatment for scarlet fever includes bed rest and the use of antipyretics like paracetamol to manage fever.

p.31
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which ocular manifestation is NOT associated with congenital rubella syndrome?

E) Retinal detachment
Explanation: Retinal detachment is not listed as an ocular manifestation of congenital rubella syndrome. The syndrome includes salt and pepper retinopathy, microphthalmos, congenital glaucoma, and cataracts.

p.20
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What can modify the disease in infants leading to Modified Measles?
A) Lack of exposure
B) Transplacentally acquired antibody
C) Full vaccination
D) No vaccination
E) Exposure to other viruses

B) Transplacentally acquired antibody
Explanation: Infants with disease modified by transplacentally acquired antibody can experience Modified Measles, which is a milder form of the disease.

p.51
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What is one of the primary prevention methods for Parvovirus B19 infection?
A) Vaccination
B) Hand hygiene (frequent hand washing)
C) Avoiding dairy products
D) Wearing masks
E) Taking antibiotics

B) Hand hygiene (frequent hand washing)
Explanation: One of the primary prevention methods for Parvovirus B19 infection is maintaining good hand hygiene through frequent hand washing.

p.54
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What is a possible symptom after 2-3 weeks of Kawasaki disease?
A) Hair loss
B) Desquamation of fingertips and toes
C) Development of new rashes
D) Persistent fever
E) Joint pain

B) Desquamation of fingertips and toes
Explanation: After 2-3 weeks of Kawasaki disease, patients may experience desquamation (peeling) of the fingertips and toes, which is a notable symptom in the later stages of the disease.

p.47
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

Where does the truncal rash of Erythema infectiosum typically appear first?
A) On the face
B) On the palms and soles
C) On the extensor surfaces of the extremities
D) On the back
E) On the neck

C) On the extensor surfaces of the extremities
Explanation: The truncal rash of Erythema infectiosum typically appears first on the extensor surfaces of the extremities and then spreads to involve the trunk.

p.47
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

How long does the 'slapped-cheek' rash of Erythema infectiosum last?
A) 1 day
B) 2 days
C) 4 days
D) 1 week
E) 2 weeks

C) 4 days
Explanation: The 'slapped-cheek' rash of Erythema infectiosum typically lasts for 4 days.

p.48
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What is a potential TORCH infection complication of erythema infectiosum?
A) Hydrops fetalis
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Autism
D) Down syndrome
E) Cerebral palsy

A) Hydrops fetalis
Explanation: Erythema infectiosum can cause TORCH infections, leading to complications such as hydrops fetalis, fetal death, and miscarriage.

p.25
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

What is the primary source of infection for German measles?
A) Contaminated water
B) Infected person (case)
C) Infected animals
D) Contaminated food
E) Soil

B) Infected person (case)
Explanation: The primary source of infection for German measles is an infected person, from whom the virus can spread to others.

p.21
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

How long after a measles infection does SSPE usually develop?
A) Immediately after infection
B) 1-2 years after infection
C) 3-4 years after infection
D) ≥ 7 years after infection
E) 10-12 years after infection

D) ≥ 7 years after infection
Explanation: SSPE usually develops 7 or more years after a measles infection.

p.38
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What should be done with infants suspected of having congenital rubella syndrome while in the hospital?
A) They should be given antibiotics
B) They should be isolated
C) They should be given extra vitamins
D) They should be exposed to sunlight
E) They should be given special diets

B) They should be isolated
Explanation: Infants suspected of having congenital rubella syndrome should be isolated while in the hospital to prevent the spread of the virus.

p.18
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is the role of Vitamin A supplementation in the treatment of measles?
A) Enhances the barrier function and immunity of the ocular, respiratory, and gastrointestinal epithelium
B) Reduces fever
C) Acts as an antibiotic
D) Provides pain relief
E) Cures the measles virus

A) Enhances the barrier function and immunity of the ocular, respiratory, and gastrointestinal epithelium
Explanation: Vitamin A supplementation enhances the barrier function and immunity of the ocular, respiratory, and gastrointestinal epithelium, which is beneficial in the treatment of measles.

p.50
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What treatment may be used for immunocompromised persons with severe anemia or chronic infection due to erythema infectiosum?
A) Antibiotics
B) Antiviral drugs
C) Intravenous immunoglobulin
D) Chemotherapy
E) Radiation therapy

C) Intravenous immunoglobulin
Explanation: Intravenous immunoglobulin may be used for immunocompromised persons with severe anemia or chronic infection caused by erythema infectiosum.

p.17
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Which of the following is a respiratory complication of measles?
A) Viral myocarditis
B) Gastroenteritis
C) Otitis media
D) Optic neuritis
E) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

C) Otitis media
Explanation: Otitis media is a respiratory complication of measles, along with sinusitis, pharyngitis, croup, laryngitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia.

p.39
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What is the causative organism of Scarlet Fever?
A) Group B Streptococci
B) Group A beta hemolytic streptococci
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Escherichia coli
E) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

B) Group A beta hemolytic streptococci
Explanation: Scarlet Fever is caused by Group A beta hemolytic streptococci, specifically strains that produce erythrogenic toxins A, B, or C.

p.16
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Are investigations required to diagnose measles in typical cases?
A) Yes, always
B) Only in severe cases
C) No, not required
D) Only in children
E) Only in adults

C) No, not required
Explanation: No investigations are required to diagnose measles in typical cases, as the diagnosis can be made based on clinical presentation.

p.16
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

How long do measles IgM antibodies persist in unimmunized persons?
A) 1-2 days
B) 1-2 weeks
C) 1-2 months
D) 1-2 years
E) Indefinitely

C) 1-2 months
Explanation: Measles IgM antibodies appear within 1-2 days of the rash and persist for 1-2 months in unimmunized persons.

p.29
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

What is a key preventive measure for German measles, especially for pregnant women?
A) Avoidance of exposure to infected children during the infectivity period
B) Regular exercise
C) High protein diet
D) Avoidance of sunlight
E) Daily vitamin supplements

A) Avoidance of exposure to infected children during the infectivity period
Explanation: Avoidance of exposure to infected children during the infectivity period is crucial, especially for females during pregnancy, to prevent German measles.

p.10
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which of the following is NOT a bacterial cause of fever with a petechial-purpuric rash?
A) Neisseria meningitidis
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Haemophilus influenzae type b
D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
Explanation: Staphylococcus epidermidis is not typically associated with causing fever with a petechial-purpuric rash, unlike Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

p.36
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which bodily secretions can shed live rubella virus in infants with congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Blood and sweat
B) Tears and saliva
C) Urine, stools, and respiratory secretions
D) Breast milk and bile
E) Cerebrospinal fluid and synovial fluid

C) Urine, stools, and respiratory secretions
Explanation: Infants with congenital rubella syndrome tend to shed live virus in urine, stools, and respiratory secretions.

p.52
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What is the typical age group affected by Kawasaki disease?
A) Newborns
B) Children up to 5 years old
C) Teenagers
D) Adults
E) Elderly

B) Children up to 5 years old
Explanation: Kawasaki disease primarily affects children up to 5 years old, making it a significant pediatric condition.

p.43
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What is a key preventive measure for scarlet fever?
A) Regular vaccination
B) Avoidance of exposure to infected children
C) Daily exercise
D) High protein diet
E) Regular hand washing

B) Avoidance of exposure to infected children
Explanation: A key preventive measure for scarlet fever is avoiding exposure to infected children to prevent the spread of the infection.

p.24
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

What is Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)?
A) A bacterial infection of the brain
B) A viral infection of the liver
C) A lethal, generalized, demyelinating inflammation of the brain caused by persistent measles virus infection
D) A fungal infection of the lungs
E) A parasitic infection of the intestines

C) A lethal, generalized, demyelinating inflammation of the brain caused by persistent measles virus infection
Explanation: SSPE is defined as a lethal, generalized, demyelinating inflammation of the brain caused by persistent measles virus infection.

p.38
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What must be done if congenital rubella syndrome is suspected?
A) The infant should be given antibiotics
B) The condition must be reported to the local or state health department
C) The infant should be given extra vitamins
D) The infant should be exposed to sunlight
E) The infant should be given special diets

B) The condition must be reported to the local or state health department
Explanation: Suspected congenital rubella syndrome is a nationally notifiable condition and must be reported to the local or state health department.

p.50
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What is the general approach to treating erythema infectiosum?
A) Immediate hospitalization
B) Antibiotic therapy
C) No treatment is necessary in most cases
D) Surgical intervention
E) Chemotherapy

C) No treatment is necessary in most cases
Explanation: Erythema infectiosum is often self-limited, meaning it resolves on its own without the need for treatment in most cases.

p.44
Roseola Infantum Presentation

Which age group is most commonly affected by Roseola Infantum?
A) Newborns (0-1 month)
B) Infants and young children (6 months to 3 years)
C) Adolescents (12-18 years)
D) Adults (18-40 years)
E) Elderly (65+ years)

B) Infants and young children (6 months to 3 years)
Explanation: Roseola Infantum is most common in infants and young children aged 6 months to 3 years.

p.17
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Which cardiovascular complication can be caused by measles?
A) Sinusitis
B) Gastroenteritis
C) Viral myocarditis
D) Optic neuritis
E) Otitis media

C) Viral myocarditis
Explanation: Viral myocarditis is a cardiovascular complication of measles, which can also lead to congestive heart failure.

p.39
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Scarlet Fever?
A) Fever
B) Pharyngitis
C) Flushed cheeks with perioral pallor
D) White-coated or strawberry-red tongue
E) Blurred vision

E) Blurred vision
Explanation: Blurred vision is not a symptom of Scarlet Fever. Common symptoms include fever, pharyngitis, flushed cheeks with perioral pallor, and a white-coated or strawberry-red tongue.

p.29
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

Which vaccine is recommended for susceptible, nonpregnant females exposed to rubella?
A) Hepatitis B vaccine
B) Influenza vaccine
C) MMR vaccine
D) Tetanus vaccine
E) Polio vaccine

C) MMR vaccine
Explanation: The MMR vaccine is recommended for susceptible, nonpregnant females exposed to rubella to provide active immunization against the disease.

p.28
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

Which of the following is NOT a supportive treatment for German measles?
A) Bed rest
B) Antipyretic with paracetamol
C) Antibiotics
D) Treatment of complications
E) Isolation

C) Antibiotics
Explanation: Supportive treatment for German measles includes bed rest, antipyretic with paracetamol, and treatment of complications. Antibiotics are not used as German measles is caused by a virus.

p.54
Kawasaki Disease Overview

Which of the following is a specific symptom of Kawasaki disease?
A) Painful unilateral conjunctivitis with exudate
B) Painless bilateral conjunctivitis without exudate
C) Painful bilateral conjunctivitis with exudate
D) Painless unilateral conjunctivitis with exudate
E) Painful bilateral conjunctivitis without exudate

B) Painless bilateral conjunctivitis without exudate
Explanation: Kawasaki disease is characterized by painless bilateral 'injected' conjunctivitis without exudate, distinguishing it from other conditions that may involve painful or exudative conjunctivitis.

p.28
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

How can measles be differentiated from erythema infectiosum based on the rash appearance?
A) Measles rash is rose-colored and discrete
B) Erythema infectiosum rash is confluent
C) Measles rash is confluent
D) Erythema infectiosum rash is scattered
E) Measles rash starts on the trunk

C) Measles rash is confluent
Explanation: Measles rash is confluent, whereas erythema infectiosum rash is rose-colored and discrete.

p.15
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What characterizes the exanthem (rash) stage of measles?
A) Non-blanching maculopapular rash
B) Blanching confluent maculopapular rash
C) Vesicular rash
D) Petechial rash
E) Pustular rash

B) Blanching confluent maculopapular rash
Explanation: The exanthem stage of measles is characterized by a blanching confluent maculopapular rash, which is a key feature of this stage.

p.24
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

How long after a measles infection does SSPE usually develop?
A) 1-2 years
B) 3-5 years
C) ≥ 7 years
D) 10-12 years
E) 15-20 years

C) ≥ 7 years
Explanation: SSPE usually develops 7 or more years after a measles infection.

p.15
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What occurs during the convalescence stage of measles?
A) Rash spreads to new areas
B) Rash becomes more intense
C) Regression of skin rash by the same sequence
D) Development of new symptoms
E) Rash turns into blisters

C) Regression of skin rash by the same sequence
Explanation: During the convalescence stage of measles, the skin rash regresses by the same sequence in 3-5 days.

p.1
Skin Lesions Classification

What is a nodule?
A) An alteration in skin color but cannot be felt (<1 cm)
B) A palpable solid lesion <1 cm
C) A palpable lesion >1 cm with a rounded surface
D) A raised, fluid-filled lesion <1 cm
E) A vesicle containing purulent material

C) A palpable lesion >1 cm with a rounded surface
Explanation: Nodules are palpable lesions that are greater than 1 cm in diameter and have a rounded surface.

p.14
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

How long do Koplik spots last before they disappear?
A) 1-2 hours
B) 6-12 hours
C) 12-24 hours
D) 2-3 days
E) 4-5 days

C) 12-24 hours
Explanation: Koplik spots last for 12-24 hours before they disappear, marking a distinctive feature in the Prodromal stage of measles.

p.48
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

Which condition is NOT a complication of erythema infectiosum?
A) Myocarditis
B) Aseptic meningitis
C) Encephalitis
D) Asthma
E) Hepatitis

D) Asthma
Explanation: Complications of erythema infectiosum include myocarditis, aseptic meningitis, encephalitis, and hepatitis, but not asthma.

p.6
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which of the following is NOT a cause of fever with rash?
A) Kawasaki disease
B) Erythema marginatum
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Drug reaction
E) Diabetes

E) Diabetes
Explanation: Diabetes is not listed as a cause of fever with rash, unlike Kawasaki disease, Erythema marginatum, Rheumatoid arthritis, and drug reactions.

p.17
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Which of the following is an ocular complication of measles?
A) Pharyngitis
B) Keratitis
C) Acute appendicitis
D) Viral myocarditis
E) Mesenteric lymphadenitis

B) Keratitis
Explanation: Keratitis is an ocular complication of measles, along with optic neuritis, corneal ulceration, and opacification.

p.39
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

How is Scarlet Fever primarily transmitted?
A) Through contaminated food
B) Through droplet infection
C) Through insect bites
D) Through direct skin contact
E) Through blood transfusion

B) Through droplet infection
Explanation: Scarlet Fever is primarily transmitted via droplet infection from an infected person or carrier.

p.34
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which of the following is a late feature of congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Jaundice
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Intellectual disability
D) Petechiae
E) Transient meningitis

C) Intellectual disability
Explanation: Intellectual disability is a late feature of congenital rubella syndrome, along with CNS defects like microcephaly and panencephalitis, skeletal abnormalities, endocrine disorders, and vascular disease.

p.10
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which condition is associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa and presents with a petechial-purpuric rash?
A) Scarlet fever
B) Ecthyma gangrenosum
C) Measles
D) Rubella
E) Roseola infantum

B) Ecthyma gangrenosum
Explanation: Ecthyma gangrenosum is associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa and presents with a petechial-purpuric rash.

p.31
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which of the following is NOT an additional feature of congenital rubella syndrome?

E) High birth weight
Explanation: High birth weight is not an additional feature of congenital rubella syndrome. The syndrome is associated with low birth weight, purpura/petechiae, hepatosplenomegaly, osteitis, and other manifestations.

p.28
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

Where does the rash of German measles and measles typically start?
A) On the trunk
B) On the legs
C) On the face
D) On the arms
E) On the back

C) On the face
Explanation: The rash of both German measles and measles typically starts on the face and spreads downwards.

p.43
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

How long should penicillin be administered to treat scarlet fever?
A) 5 days
B) 7 days
C) 10 days
D) 14 days
E) 3 days

C) 10 days
Explanation: Penicillin should be administered for a complete 10 days to effectively eradicate streptococci in the treatment of scarlet fever.

p.24
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

Which age group is primarily affected by SSPE?
A) Newborns
B) Children between 8 and 11 years of age
C) Teenagers between 13 and 18 years of age
D) Adults between 20 and 30 years of age
E) Elderly above 65 years of age

B) Children between 8 and 11 years of age
Explanation: SSPE primarily affects boys between 8 and 11 years of age.

p.15
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What happens to the measles rash after approximately 5 days of onset?
A) It becomes more intense
B) It fades, leaving a brown discoloration and desquamation
C) It spreads to the palms and soles
D) It turns into vesicles
E) It causes severe itching

B) It fades, leaving a brown discoloration and desquamation
Explanation: After approximately 5 days of onset, the measles rash fades, leaving behind a brown discoloration and desquamation.

p.1
Skin Lesions Classification

What is a macule?
A) A palpable solid lesion <1 cm
B) A raised, fluid-filled lesion <1 cm
C) An alteration in skin color but cannot be felt (<1 cm)
D) A palpable lesion >1 cm with a rounded surface
E) A vesicle containing purulent material

C) An alteration in skin color but cannot be felt (<1 cm)
Explanation: A macule is defined as an alteration in skin color that cannot be felt and is less than 1 cm in diameter.

p.1
Skin Lesions Classification

What characterizes a papule?
A) An alteration in skin color but cannot be felt (<1 cm)
B) A palpable solid lesion <1 cm
C) A palpable lesion >1 cm with a rounded surface
D) A raised, fluid-filled lesion <1 cm
E) A vesicle containing purulent material

B) A palpable solid lesion <1 cm
Explanation: Papules are palpable solid lesions that are less than 1 cm in diameter.

p.1
Skin Lesions Classification

What defines a pustule?
A) A palpable solid lesion <1 cm
B) A palpable lesion >1 cm with a rounded surface
C) A raised, fluid-filled lesion <1 cm
D) A vesicle containing purulent material
E) An alteration in skin color but cannot be felt (<1 cm)

D) A vesicle containing purulent material
Explanation: Pustules are vesicles that contain purulent material.

p.14
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What are the three stages of the clinical picture of measles?
A) Incubation, Prodromal, Recovery
B) Prodromal, Exanthematous, Recovery
C) Incubation, Exanthematous, Recovery
D) Prodromal, Incubation, Recovery
E) Exanthematous, Incubation, Recovery

B) Prodromal, Exanthematous, Recovery
Explanation: The clinical picture of measles consists of three stages: the Prodromal stage (3-4 days), the Exanthematous stage (5 days), and the Recovery stage (3-5 days).

p.25
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

What is another name for German measles?
A) Chickenpox
B) Mumps
C) 3-day measles
D) Scarlet fever
E) Roseola

C) 3-day measles
Explanation: German measles is also known as the 3-day measles, highlighting its relatively short duration compared to other similar illnesses.

p.25
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

How is German measles primarily transmitted?
A) Through contaminated food
B) Through droplet infection
C) Through direct contact with soil
D) Through insect bites
E) Through contaminated water

B) Through droplet infection
Explanation: German measles is primarily transmitted through droplet infection, where the virus spreads via respiratory droplets from an infected person.

p.52
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What is required for the clinical diagnosis of Kawasaki disease?
A) Fever for at least 3 days
B) Fever for at least 5 days + ≥ 4 other specific symptoms
C) Fever for at least 7 days
D) Fever for at least 5 days + ≥ 2 other specific symptoms
E) Fever for at least 10 days

B) Fever for at least 5 days + ≥ 4 other specific symptoms
Explanation: The clinical diagnosis of Kawasaki disease requires a fever for at least 5 days along with either ≥ 4 other specific symptoms or < 4 specific symptoms with involvement of the coronary arteries.

p.47
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What is the characteristic rash of Erythema infectiosum called?
A) Butterfly rash
B) Slapped-cheek rash
C) Hives
D) Bull's-eye rash
E) Vesicular rash

B) Slapped-cheek rash
Explanation: The characteristic rash of Erythema infectiosum is known as the 'slapped-cheek' rash, which presents suddenly on the face, giving the child a slapped cheek appearance.

p.47
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What can cause the periodic reappearance of the rash in Erythema infectiosum?
A) Cold weather
B) Sun exposure
C) Exercise, warm baths, or emotional stress
D) Lack of sleep
E) High altitude

C) Exercise, warm baths, or emotional stress
Explanation: The rash in Erythema infectiosum may periodically reappear with exercise, warm baths, or emotional stress.

p.45
Roseola Infantum Presentation

Where does the rash associated with Roseola infantum typically start?
A) Face
B) Legs
C) Trunk
D) Hands
E) Feet

C) Trunk
Explanation: The rash in Roseola infantum typically starts on the trunk and then spreads rapidly to the arms and neck, with minimal involvement of the face.

p.46
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What effect does Parvovirus B19 have on erythroid progenitor cells?
A) It increases erythropoiesis
B) It causes transient cessation of erythropoiesis
C) It has no effect on erythropoiesis
D) It causes permanent cessation of erythropoiesis
E) It decreases erythropoiesis slightly

B) It causes transient cessation of erythropoiesis
Explanation: Parvovirus B19 invades erythroid progenitor cells, causing a transient cessation of erythropoiesis, which can lead to temporary anemia.

p.32
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What is the risk of congenital defects if rubella infection occurs between weeks 13 and 20 of gestation?
A) 85%
B) 50%
C) 16%
D) 30%
E) 10%

C) 16%
Explanation: Infection with rubella between weeks 13 and 20 of gestation carries a 16% risk of congenital defects.

p.41
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What is a potential complication of untreated or subclinical infection with group A streptococcus (GAS)?
A) Otitis media
B) Rheumatic fever
C) Bronchitis
D) Sinusitis
E) Pneumonia

B) Rheumatic fever
Explanation: Rheumatic fever is a complication of untreated or subclinical infection with group A streptococcus (GAS), particularly tonsillopharyngitis.

p.40
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What happens during the convalescence stage of scarlet fever?
A) Rash becomes more intense
B) Rash fades with desquamation
C) Fever increases
D) New symptoms appear
E) Rash spreads to new areas

B) Rash fades with desquamation
Explanation: During the convalescence stage of scarlet fever, the rash fades within 3-4 days and is followed by desquamation, including on the palms and soles.

p.20
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is a common feature of Modified Measles?
A) Severe symptoms
B) Mild cases of measles
C) No symptoms
D) Rapid progression
E) High mortality rate

B) Mild cases of measles
Explanation: Modified Measles typically presents as mild cases of measles in persons with partial protection against the disease.

p.15
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

How long does it take for the measles rash to disseminate to the rest of the body?
A) 1-2 days
B) 3-4 days
C) 5-6 days
D) 7-8 days
E) 9-10 days

B) 3-4 days
Explanation: The measles rash disseminates to the rest of the body towards the feet in 3-4 days, sparing the palms and soles.

p.51
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What does a negative IgM and positive IgG result indicate in a serologic assay for Parvovirus B19?
A) Acute infection
B) Very recent infection
C) Maternal immunity
D) No maternal immunity
E) Chronic infection

C) Maternal immunity
Explanation: A negative IgM and positive IgG result in a serologic assay for Parvovirus B19 indicates maternal immunity.

p.51
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What does a negative IgM and negative IgG result indicate in a serologic assay for Parvovirus B19?
A) Acute infection
B) Very recent infection
C) Maternal immunity
D) No maternal immunity
E) Chronic infection

D) No maternal immunity
Explanation: A negative IgM and negative IgG result in a serologic assay for Parvovirus B19 indicates no maternal immunity.

p.14
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What are Koplik spots and where are they found?
A) Red spots on the palms
B) White spots on the tongue
C) Tiny white or bluish-gray spots on an erythematous background opposite lower molar teeth
D) Purple spots on the legs
E) Yellow spots on the chest

C) Tiny white or bluish-gray spots on an erythematous background opposite lower molar teeth
Explanation: Koplik spots are pathognomonic for measles and are tiny white or bluish-gray spots on an irregular erythematous background, typically found opposite the lower molar teeth.

p.25
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

What is the causative organism of German measles?
A) Varicella-zoster virus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Rubella virus
D) Measles virus
E) Parvovirus B19

C) Rubella virus
Explanation: The Rubella virus is the causative organism of German measles, responsible for the infection and its symptoms.

p.26
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

Where does the maculopapular rash of German measles typically begin?
A) On the palms and soles
B) On the trunk
C) At the hairline behind the ears
D) On the face
E) On the legs

C) At the hairline behind the ears
Explanation: The maculopapular rash of German measles typically begins at the hairline behind the ears and then extends to the trunk and extremities, sparing the palms and soles.

p.46
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What is another name for erythema infectiosum?
A) Sixth disease
B) Fourth disease
C) Fifth disease
D) Third disease
E) Second disease

C) Fifth disease
Explanation: Erythema infectiosum is also known as fifth disease, which is a common childhood illness caused by Parvovirus B19.

p.37
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What is the recommended action for intrauterine rubella infection if the pregnancy is more than 16 weeks?
A) Immediate delivery
B) Reassurance
C) Termination of pregnancy
D) Administration of antiviral medication
E) No action needed

B) Reassurance
Explanation: For intrauterine rubella infection occurring after 16 weeks of pregnancy, the recommendation is to provide reassurance, as the risk of severe congenital defects is significantly lower.

p.30
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What is the trend of the risk of fetal infection with Congenital Rubella Syndrome in the third trimester?
A) It remains constant
B) It decreases
C) It increases
D) It becomes negligible
E) It fluctuates

C) It increases
Explanation: The risk of fetal infection with Congenital Rubella Syndrome increases again in the third trimester.

p.37
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which of the following is NOT a part of the treatment for congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Supportive care
B) Surveillance
C) Termination of pregnancy
D) Monitoring for late-term complications
E) Individualized care based on disease manifestations

C) Termination of pregnancy
Explanation: Termination of pregnancy is not a part of the treatment for congenital rubella syndrome; it is a recommendation for intrauterine rubella infection before 16 weeks. Treatment for congenital rubella syndrome focuses on supportive care and surveillance.

p.15
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Where does the measles rash typically begin?
A) On the palms and soles
B) On the chest and back
C) Behind the ears and often above the hairline
D) On the legs and feet
E) On the abdomen

C) Behind the ears and often above the hairline
Explanation: The measles rash typically begins behind the ears and often above the hairline before spreading to other parts of the body.

p.42
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

Which of the following is a common finding in the CBC of a patient with scarlet fever?
A) Decreased WBCs
B) Increased WBCs with marked neutrophilia
C) Normal WBCs
D) Decreased neutrophils
E) Increased lymphocytes

B) Increased WBCs with marked neutrophilia
Explanation: In scarlet fever, a complete blood count (CBC) typically shows increased white blood cells (WBCs) with marked neutrophilia, indicating a bacterial infection.

p.15
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is a usual symptom during the exanthem stage of measles?
A) Severe headache
B) Generalized lymphadenopathy
C) Joint pain
D) Abdominal pain
E) Muscle weakness

B) Generalized lymphadenopathy
Explanation: Generalized lymphadenopathy is a usual symptom during the exanthem stage of measles.

p.24
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

What is the prognosis for patients diagnosed with SSPE?
A) Full recovery within 1-3 years
B) Chronic illness with no impact on lifespan
C) Leads to death within 1-3 years of diagnosis
D) Leads to death within 10-15 years of diagnosis
E) Leads to permanent disability but not death

C) Leads to death within 1-3 years of diagnosis
Explanation: SSPE leads to death within 1-3 years of diagnosis.

p.1
Skin Lesions Classification

What is the difference between a vesicle and a bulla?
A) Vesicles are palpable solid lesions <1 cm, bullae are >1 cm
B) Vesicles are raised, fluid-filled lesions <1 cm, bullae are >1 cm
C) Vesicles are alterations in skin color, bullae are palpable
D) Vesicles contain purulent material, bullae do not
E) Vesicles are palpable lesions >1 cm, bullae are <1 cm

B) Vesicles are raised, fluid-filled lesions <1 cm, bullae are >1 cm
Explanation: Vesicles are raised, fluid-filled lesions that are less than 1 cm in diameter, while bullae are larger than 1 cm.

p.23
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

What is found in the cerebrospinal fluid of patients with subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?
A) Decreased glucose levels
B) Increased anti-measles IgG
C) Increased protein levels
D) Decreased white blood cells
E) Increased red blood cells

B) Increased anti-measles IgG
Explanation: In patients with subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows increased levels of anti-measles IgG, indicating an immune response to the measles virus.

p.14
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is the duration of the Exanthematous stage in measles?
A) 1 day
B) 3 days
C) 5 days
D) 7 days
E) 10 days

C) 5 days
Explanation: The Exanthematous stage of measles lasts for 5 days, following the Prodromal stage and preceding the Recovery stage.

p.25
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

What is the infectivity period for German measles?
A) 3 days before and 3 days after rash appearance
B) 5 days before and 5 days after rash appearance
C) 7 days before and 7 days after rash appearance
D) 10 days before and 10 days after rash appearance
E) 14 days before and 14 days after rash appearance

C) 7 days before and 7 days after rash appearance
Explanation: The infectivity period for German measles is 7 days before and 7 days after the appearance of the rash, indicating the time frame during which the infected person can spread the virus to others.

p.11
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which condition is characterized by a decrease in platelets and can present with a petechial rash?
A) Vasculitis
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
D) Acute hemorrhagic edema of infancy
E) Malaria

B) Thrombocytopenia
Explanation: Thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decrease in platelets, which can lead to a petechial rash due to bleeding under the skin.

p.26
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

What occurs during the convalescence stage of German measles?
A) Onset of high fever
B) Appearance of new rashes
C) Regression of skin rash by the same sequence
D) Development of severe cough
E) Enlargement of lymph nodes

C) Regression of skin rash by the same sequence
Explanation: During the convalescence stage of German measles, the skin rash regresses by the same sequence in 2-3 days.

p.30
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What happens to the risk of fetal infection with Congenital Rubella Syndrome in the second trimester?
A) It remains the same
B) It decreases
C) It increases
D) It becomes negligible
E) It fluctuates

B) It decreases
Explanation: The risk of fetal infection with Congenital Rubella Syndrome decreases in the second trimester.

p.46
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What is the main route of infection for erythema infectiosum?
A) Direct contact
B) Droplet transmission
C) Vector-borne
D) Waterborne
E) Foodborne

B) Droplet transmission
Explanation: The main route of infection for erythema infectiosum is droplet transmission, although it can also be transmitted through blood and transplacentally.

p.22
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

What are the primary symptoms of Stage I in Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)?
A) Epilepsy and myoclonus
B) Dementia and personality changes
C) Decerebration and spasticity
D) Vegetative state and autonomic failure
E) Extrapyramidal symptoms

B) Dementia and personality changes
Explanation: Stage I of SSPE is characterized by dementia (loss of cognitive functions) and personality changes, including behavioral and intellectual deterioration.

p.51
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What should a pregnant mother do post-exposure to Parvovirus B19?
A) Take antiviral medication
B) Get vaccinated
C) Undergo serologic assays for IgG and IgM against Parvovirus B19
D) Avoid all contact with children
E) Take antibiotics

C) Undergo serologic assays for IgG and IgM against Parvovirus B19
Explanation: A pregnant mother post-exposure to Parvovirus B19 should undergo serologic assays for IgG and IgM to determine her infection status and immunity.

p.24
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

Which clinical stage of SSPE is characterized by dementia and personality changes?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
E) Stage V

A) Stage I
Explanation: Stage I of SSPE is characterized by dementia and personality changes.

p.24
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

What are the characteristic findings on electroencephalography (EEG) in SSPE?
A) Normal EEG
B) Paroxysmal delta waves and periodic sharp and slow wave complexes
C) Continuous alpha waves
D) Beta waves with no sharp complexes
E) Theta waves with no sharp complexes

B) Paroxysmal delta waves and periodic sharp and slow wave complexes
Explanation: Electroencephalography in SSPE shows paroxysmal delta waves (very slow, 1-3/sec) and periodic sharp and slow wave complexes.

p.42
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What is the significance of ASOT and anti-hyaluronidase in the diagnosis of scarlet fever?
A) They are used for diagnosing acute infection
B) They are used for diagnosing viral infections
C) They rise late and are used for diagnosing GAS sequelae
D) They are used for diagnosing fungal infections
E) They are used for diagnosing parasitic infections

C) They rise late and are used for diagnosing GAS sequelae
Explanation: ASOT (anti-streptolysin O titer) and anti-hyaluronidase levels rise 2-3 weeks after infection and are used for diagnosing sequelae of Group A Streptococcus (GAS) rather than the acute infection.

p.23
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

Which diagnostic tool is used for subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) Electroencephalography (EEG)
D) Ultrasound
E) X-ray

C) Electroencephalography (EEG)
Explanation: Electroencephalography (EEG) is used in the diagnosis of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) to detect characteristic patterns in brain activity.

p.14
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What symptoms are characteristic of the Prodromal (Catarrhal) stage of measles?
A) Low fever, rash, and headache
B) High fever, coryza, cough, and conjunctivitis
C) Rash, joint pain, and fatigue
D) Sore throat, swollen glands, and rash
E) Abdominal pain, diarrhea, and vomiting

B) High fever, coryza, cough, and conjunctivitis
Explanation: The Prodromal stage of measles is characterized by an acute onset of high fever (40-40.5°C), coryza, cough, and conjunctivitis lasting for 3-4 days.

p.48
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

Which of the following is a rare complication of erythema infectiosum?
A) Hepatitis
B) Diabetes
C) Hypertension
D) Asthma
E) Osteoporosis

A) Hepatitis
Explanation: Rare complications of erythema infectiosum include hepatitis, myocarditis, and aseptic meningitis/encephalitis.

p.11
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

What is a common symptom of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)?
A) High blood pressure
B) Petechial rash
C) Weight gain
D) Hair loss
E) Jaundice

B) Petechial rash
Explanation: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) commonly presents with a petechial rash, which is a small red or purple spot caused by bleeding into the skin.

p.46
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

Which virus causes erythema infectiosum?
A) Varicella-zoster virus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Parvovirus B19
D) Human herpesvirus 6
E) Measles virus

C) Parvovirus B19
Explanation: Erythema infectiosum is caused by Parvovirus B19, which commonly affects children aged 5 to 15 years.

p.46
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

During which period is erythema infectiosum infectious?
A) Only after the rash appears
B) Only before the onset of the rash
C) Throughout the entire illness
D) Only during the incubation period
E) Only after recovery

B) Only before the onset of the rash
Explanation: Erythema infectiosum is infectious only before the onset of the rash. Once the rash appears, the individual is no longer infectious.

p.45
Roseola Infantum Presentation

How is Roseola infantum typically diagnosed?
A) Blood culture
B) Clinical diagnosis
C) X-ray
D) MRI
E) Urine test

B) Clinical diagnosis
Explanation: Roseola infantum is primarily diagnosed clinically, although detection of HHV-6 IgM is possible for confirmation.

p.22
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

Which symptoms are associated with Stage II of SSPE?
A) Dementia and personality changes
B) Decerebration and spasticity
C) Epilepsy, myoclonus, and autonomic dysfunction
D) Vegetative state and autonomic failure
E) Loss of cognitive functions

C) Epilepsy, myoclonus, and autonomic dysfunction
Explanation: Stage II of SSPE is characterized by epilepsy, myoclonus, and autonomic dysfunction.

p.51
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

What does a positive IgM and positive IgG result indicate in a serologic assay for Parvovirus B19?
A) Maternal immunity
B) No maternal immunity
C) Acute infection
D) Very recent infection
E) Chronic infection

C) Acute infection
Explanation: A positive IgM and positive IgG result in a serologic assay for Parvovirus B19 indicates an acute infection.

p.42
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What does a throat swab typically reveal in a patient with scarlet fever?
A) Group B beta streptococcus
B) Group A beta streptococcus
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Escherichia coli
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B) Group A beta streptococcus
Explanation: A throat swab in a patient with scarlet fever typically reveals the presence of Group A beta streptococcus, which is the causative agent of the infection.

p.48
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

Which of the following is a complication of erythema infectiosum?
A) Transient aplastic crisis
B) Pneumonia
C) Diabetes
D) Hypertension
E) Asthma

A) Transient aplastic crisis
Explanation: Erythema infectiosum can lead to transient aplastic crisis, especially in individuals with underlying conditions such as sickle cell anemia (SCA), thalassemia, and spherocytosis.

p.49
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

Which antibodies are used to diagnose acute infection of erythema infectiosum in adults or atypical cases?
A) IgA antibodies
B) IgE antibodies
C) IgM antibodies
D) IgD antibodies
E) IgG antibodies

C) IgM antibodies
Explanation: In adults or atypical cases of erythema infectiosum, IgM antibodies are used to diagnose acute infection, indicating a recent exposure to the virus.

p.25
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

What is the incubation period (IP) for German measles?
A) 1-2 days
B) 1-2 weeks
C) 2-3 weeks
D) 4-5 weeks
E) 5-6 days

C) 2-3 weeks
Explanation: The incubation period for German measles is 2-3 weeks, during which the virus resides in the mucosa of the nasopharynx and throat before symptoms appear.

p.19
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What should be done to prevent measles exposure in chronically ill and immunocompromised individuals after direct exposure?
A) Active immunization with MMR vaccine
B) Passive immunization with immunoglobulins
C) Isolation for 2 weeks
D) Administration of antibiotics
E) Increased fluid intake

B) Passive immunization with immunoglobulins
Explanation: For chronically ill and immunocompromised individuals, passive immunization with immunoglobulins is recommended after direct exposure to prevent measles.

p.22
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Stage II in SSPE?
A) Epilepsy
B) Myoclonus
C) Autonomic dysfunction
D) Dementia
E) None of the above

D) Dementia
Explanation: Dementia is a symptom of Stage I, not Stage II. Stage II is characterized by epilepsy, myoclonus, and autonomic dysfunction.

p.32
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What percentage of infants can have abnormalities if rubella infection occurs between weeks 9 and 12 of gestation?
A) 85%
B) 50%
C) 16%
D) 30%
E) 10%

B) 50%
Explanation: If rubella infection occurs between weeks 9 and 12 of gestation, 50% of infants can have abnormalities.

p.32
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What is the likelihood of spontaneous abortion or stillbirth if rubella infection occurs in the first 8 weeks of gestation?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
E) 50%

D) 40%
Explanation: If rubella infection occurs in the first 8 weeks of gestation, there is a 40% likelihood of spontaneous abortion or stillbirth.

p.40
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

When does the rash typically appear in scarlet fever?
A) Immediately after the fever starts
B) Within 24-48 hours
C) After one week
D) After the fever subsides
E) After one month

B) Within 24-48 hours
Explanation: In scarlet fever, the rash typically appears within 24-48 hours, starting around the neck and then spreading to the trunk and extremities.

p.42
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What does a high ESR and CRP indicate in a patient with scarlet fever?
A) Viral infection
B) Parasitic infection
C) Inflammatory response
D) Allergic reaction
E) Fungal infection

C) Inflammatory response
Explanation: Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are indicative of an inflammatory response, which is common in bacterial infections like scarlet fever.

p.42
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

Which test is used to rapidly diagnose scarlet fever from a throat swab?
A) Blood culture
B) Urine test
C) Rapid antigen (Strept) test
D) Skin biopsy
E) Chest X-ray

C) Rapid antigen (Strept) test
Explanation: The rapid antigen (Strept) test from a throat swab is used to quickly diagnose scarlet fever by detecting the presence of Group A Streptococcus.

p.1
Skin Lesions Classification

How does a patch differ from a macule?
A) A patch is a palpable solid lesion <1 cm
B) A patch is a raised, fluid-filled lesion <1 cm
C) A patch is an alteration in skin color but cannot be felt (>1 cm)
D) A patch is a palpable lesion >1 cm with a rounded surface
E) A patch is a vesicle containing purulent material

C) A patch is an alteration in skin color but cannot be felt (>1 cm)
Explanation: A patch is similar to a macule but is larger than 1 cm in diameter.

p.23
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

What is the prognosis for patients diagnosed with subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?
A) Full recovery within a year
B) Chronic condition with normal life expectancy
C) Death within 1-3 years of diagnosis
D) Symptoms improve with treatment
E) Lifelong management with medication

C) Death within 1-3 years of diagnosis
Explanation: The prognosis for patients diagnosed with subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is poor, with death typically occurring within 1-3 years of diagnosis.

p.49
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

How is erythema infectiosum typically diagnosed in children?
A) Through a blood test
B) Through a clinical diagnosis
C) Through a skin biopsy
D) Through a urine test
E) Through a throat swab

B) Through a clinical diagnosis
Explanation: Erythema infectiosum is typically diagnosed clinically in children, meaning that the diagnosis is based on the observation of symptoms and physical examination rather than laboratory tests.

p.11
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which of the following conditions is a systemic inflammatory disorder that can present with fever and petechial rash?
A) Vasculitis
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
D) Acute hemorrhagic edema of infancy
E) Malaria

A) Vasculitis
Explanation: Vasculitis is a systemic inflammatory disorder that can present with fever and a petechial rash due to inflammation of blood vessels.

p.45
Roseola Infantum Presentation

What is a potential complication of Roseola infantum in high-risk children?
A) Pneumonia
B) Febrile convulsions
C) Meningitis
D) Encephalitis
E) Hepatitis

B) Febrile convulsions
Explanation: Febrile convulsions may occur as a complication in high-risk children with Roseola infantum, particularly due to the high fever associated with the condition.

p.19
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is a recommended action to avoid measles infection during the infectivity period?
A) Avoidance of exposure to infected children
B) Taking antiviral medication
C) Wearing protective clothing
D) Using insect repellent
E) Drinking herbal tea

A) Avoidance of exposure to infected children
Explanation: Avoiding exposure to infected children during the infectivity period is a recommended action to prevent measles infection.

p.22
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

What are the clinical features of Stage III in SSPE?
A) Dementia and personality changes
B) Epilepsy and myoclonus
C) Decerebration, spasticity, and extrapyramidal symptoms
D) Vegetative state and autonomic failure
E) Autonomic dysfunction

C) Decerebration, spasticity, and extrapyramidal symptoms
Explanation: Stage III of SSPE is marked by decerebration, spasticity, and extrapyramidal symptoms.

p.22
Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

Which stage of SSPE is characterized by a vegetative state and autonomic failure?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
E) Stage V

D) Stage IV
Explanation: Stage IV of SSPE is characterized by a vegetative state and autonomic failure, where the function of the cortex is impaired, but the function of the brainstem is preserved.

p.48
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

Which of the following blood disorders can be complicated by erythema infectiosum?
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Hemophilia
C) Leukemia
D) Lymphoma
E) Polycythemia

A) Sickle cell anemia
Explanation: Erythema infectiosum can lead to transient aplastic crisis in individuals with blood disorders such as sickle cell anemia, thalassemia, and spherocytosis.

p.49
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

Which antibodies remain positive for life following infection with erythema infectiosum?
A) IgA antibodies
B) IgE antibodies
C) IgM antibodies
D) IgD antibodies
E) IgG antibodies

E) IgG antibodies
Explanation: IgG antibodies remain positive for life following infection with erythema infectiosum, indicating past exposure and long-term immunity.

p.49
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

When do IgG antibodies typically appear following infection with erythema infectiosum?
A) Immediately after infection
B) 1 week after infection
C) 2 weeks following infection
D) 1 month after infection
E) 3 months after infection

C) 2 weeks following infection
Explanation: IgG antibodies typically appear 2 weeks following infection with erythema infectiosum and remain positive for life, indicating long-term immunity.

p.49
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

In which population is erythema infectiosum typically diagnosed clinically?
A) Adults
B) Elderly
C) Children
D) Pregnant women
E) Immunocompromised individuals

C) Children
Explanation: Erythema infectiosum is typically diagnosed clinically in children, based on the observation of symptoms and physical examination.

p.11
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which of the following conditions can present with fever and petechial rash?
A) Vasculitis
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
D) Acute hemorrhagic edema of infancy
E) All of the above

E) All of the above
Explanation: Vasculitis, thrombocytopenia, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, acute hemorrhagic edema of infancy, and malaria can all present with fever and petechial rash.

p.37
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What is the recommended action for intrauterine rubella infection if the pregnancy is less than 16 weeks?
A) Immediate delivery
B) Reassurance
C) Termination of pregnancy
D) Administration of antiviral medication
E) No action needed

C) Termination of pregnancy
Explanation: For intrauterine rubella infection occurring before 16 weeks of pregnancy, the recommendation is to counsel for termination of the pregnancy due to the high risk of severe congenital defects.

p.37
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What is the primary approach to managing congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Surgical intervention
B) Supportive care and surveillance
C) Antibiotic therapy
D) Chemotherapy
E) Radiation therapy

B) Supportive care and surveillance
Explanation: The management of congenital rubella syndrome involves supportive care based on individual disease manifestations and surveillance to monitor for late-term complications.

p.45
Roseola Infantum Presentation

What is the recommended treatment for Roseola infantum in immunocompromised hosts?
A) Antibiotics
B) Antiviral drugs like ganciclovir or foscarnet
C) Antifungal medication
D) Steroids
E) Chemotherapy

B) Antiviral drugs like ganciclovir or foscarnet
Explanation: In immunocompromised hosts, the use of antiviral drugs such as ganciclovir or foscarnet can be considered for treating Roseola infantum.

p.19
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is a primary method of preventing measles infection?
A) Avoiding crowded places
B) Active immunization with MMR vaccine
C) Taking antibiotics
D) Drinking plenty of water
E) Using mosquito nets

B) Active immunization with MMR vaccine
Explanation: The primary method of preventing measles infection is through active immunization with the MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine.

p.19
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is the recommended post-exposure prevention for immunocompetent individuals?
A) Passive immunization with immunoglobulins
B) Active immunization with MMR vaccine
C) Isolation for 2 weeks
D) Administration of antiviral drugs
E) Increased vitamin intake

B) Active immunization with MMR vaccine
Explanation: For immunocompetent individuals, active immunization with the MMR vaccine is recommended after direct exposure to prevent measles.

p.26
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

What are the three stages of German measles (Rubella)?
A) Incubation, Prodromal, Recovery
B) Prodromal, Exanthem, Convalescence
C) Initial, Peak, Decline
D) Onset, Rash, Healing
E) Primary, Secondary, Tertiary

B) Prodromal, Exanthem, Convalescence
Explanation: German measles (Rubella) progresses through three stages: Prodromal (1-5 days), Exanthem (1-2 days), and Convalescence (2-3 days).

p.55
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What is the initial treatment for Kawasaki Disease to reduce the risk of coronary artery aneurysms?
A) Low-dose aspirin
B) IV immunoglobulin (IVIG)
C) Oral antibiotics
D) IV glucocorticoids
E) Antiviral medication

B) IV immunoglobulin (IVIG)
Explanation: High single-dose IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) is used in the early treatment of Kawasaki Disease to reduce the risk of coronary artery aneurysms.

p.55
Kawasaki Disease Overview

How is high-dose oral aspirin used in the treatment of Kawasaki Disease?
A) Only for pain relief
B) Until the fever has subsided, then continued at a lower dosage for its antiplatelet effect
C) Only for one week
D) Until the patient is fully recovered
E) Only in combination with IV antibiotics

B) Until the fever has subsided, then continued at a lower dosage for its antiplatelet effect
Explanation: High-dose oral aspirin is used until the fever has subsided, then continued with a lower dosage for its antiplatelet effect until ESR has normalized (1-2 months).

p.33
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which of the following eye conditions is associated with congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Glaucoma
B) Retinopathy
C) Cataracts
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

D) All of the above
Explanation: Congenital rubella syndrome can lead to various eye conditions including cataracts, retinopathy, and glaucoma.

p.26
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

Which symptom is pathognomonic for the prodromal stage of German measles?
A) High fever
B) Severe headache
C) Tender and enlarged postauricular and occipital lymph nodes
D) Severe cough
E) Abdominal pain

C) Tender and enlarged postauricular and occipital lymph nodes
Explanation: During the prodromal stage of German measles, tender and enlarged postauricular and occipital lymph nodes appear one day before the onset of the skin rash and persist for around one week, which is pathognomonic.

p.26
German Measles (Rubella) Characteristics

What is Forchheimer sign in German measles?
A) Rash on the palms and soles
B) Fleeting rose-colored spots in the soft palate
C) Persistent high fever
D) Severe joint pain
E) Blistering skin lesions

B) Fleeting rose-colored spots in the soft palate
Explanation: Forchheimer sign is characterized by fleeting rose-colored spots in the soft palate, occurring in 20% of patients with German measles.

p.30
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

How is Congenital Rubella Syndrome primarily transmitted to an unimmunized seronegative mother?
A) Through contaminated water
B) Via airborne droplets
C) Through direct contact with blood
D) Via insect bites
E) Through food contamination

B) Via airborne droplets
Explanation: Congenital Rubella Syndrome is primarily transmitted to an unimmunized seronegative mother mainly via airborne droplets.

p.30
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

How is Congenital Rubella Syndrome transmitted to the fetus?
A) Through breastfeeding
B) Via transplacental transmission from an infected mother
C) Through direct contact during birth
D) Via contaminated food
E) Through the umbilical cord

B) Via transplacental transmission from an infected mother
Explanation: Congenital Rubella Syndrome is transmitted to the fetus transplacentally from an infected mother.

p.30
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

During which trimester is the risk of fetal infection with Congenital Rubella Syndrome the highest?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) Fourth trimester
E) Equally high in all trimesters

A) First trimester
Explanation: The risk of fetal infection with Congenital Rubella Syndrome is highest in the first trimester, decreases in the second trimester, and increases again in the third trimester.

p.11
Fever with Maculopapular Rash

Which condition is most likely to present with fever and petechial rash in infants?
A) Vasculitis
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
D) Acute hemorrhagic edema of infancy
E) Malaria

D) Acute hemorrhagic edema of infancy
Explanation: Acute hemorrhagic edema of infancy typically presents with fever and a petechial rash in infants.

p.45
Roseola Infantum Presentation

What is the typical onset of fever in Roseola infantum?
A) Gradual onset of low fever
B) Sudden onset of high fever (> 40°C)
C) Gradual onset of high fever
D) Sudden onset of low fever
E) No fever

B) Sudden onset of high fever (> 40°C)
Explanation: Roseola infantum is characterized by a sudden onset of high fever, typically greater than 40°C, which lasts for 3-4 days before abruptly dropping with the appearance of a rash.

p.37
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Why is surveillance important in the management of congenital rubella syndrome?
A) To administer vaccines
B) To monitor for late-term complications
C) To provide immediate surgical intervention
D) To prescribe antibiotics
E) To ensure proper nutrition

B) To monitor for late-term complications
Explanation: Surveillance is crucial in the management of congenital rubella syndrome to monitor for late-term complications that may arise as a result of the infection.

p.19
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is the reporting regulation for measles?
A) It is a notifiable disease
B) It is a seasonal disease
C) It is a non-communicable disease
D) It is a rare disease
E) It is a self-limiting disease

A) It is a notifiable disease
Explanation: Measles is classified as a notifiable disease, meaning that cases must be reported to public health authorities.

p.32
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What is the risk of congenital defects if rubella infection occurs in the first 8 weeks of gestation?
A) 16%
B) 50%
C) 85%
D) 30%
E) 10%

C) 85%
Explanation: Infection with rubella in the first 8 weeks of gestation carries an 85% risk of congenital defects, with 40% of cases resulting in spontaneous abortion or stillbirth.

p.32
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What is the risk of congenital defects if rubella infection occurs after 20 weeks of gestation?
A) 85%
B) 50%
C) 16%
D) No significant risk
E) 10%

D) No significant risk
Explanation: Infection with rubella after 20 weeks of gestation does not seem to cause congenital defects.

p.55
Kawasaki Disease Overview

Which laboratory findings support the diagnosis of Kawasaki Disease?
A) Decreased ESR and CRP
B) Leukopenia
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Increased ESR and CRP
E) Decreased leukocytes

D) Increased ESR and CRP
Explanation: Kawasaki Disease is supported by laboratory findings such as increased ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) and CRP (C-Reactive Protein), along with leukocytosis and thrombocytosis.

p.41
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What is PSGN and what causes it?
A) An acute glomerular inflammation caused by nephritogenic strains of group A Streptococcus pyogenes
B) A chronic lung disease caused by bacterial infection
C) A skin infection caused by group B Streptococcus
D) A neurological disorder caused by viral infection
E) A gastrointestinal infection caused by group A Streptococcus

A) An acute glomerular inflammation caused by nephritogenic strains of group A Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation: PSGN (Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis) is an acute glomerular inflammation that results from a preceding infection with nephritogenic strains of group A (beta-hemolytic) Streptococcus pyogenes.

p.41
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

Which of the following is a common time frame for PSGN to develop after a group A streptococcal infection?
A) 1-2 days
B) 1-6 weeks
C) 2-3 months
D) 6-12 months
E) 1 year

B) 1-6 weeks
Explanation: PSGN most commonly develops in children approximately 1-6 weeks following a group A streptococcal tonsillopharyngitis or possibly skin infections such as impetigo.

p.13
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is the causative organism of measles?
A) Bacteria
B) Fungus
C) Measles virus (Robula)
D) Parasite
E) Protozoa

C) Measles virus (Robula)
Explanation: Measles is caused by the measles virus, also known as Robula, which is a highly contagious viral pathogen.

p.33
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What type of hearing loss is associated with congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Conductive hearing loss
B) Mixed hearing loss
C) Bilateral sensorineural hearing loss
D) Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss
E) Central auditory processing disorder

C) Bilateral sensorineural hearing loss
Explanation: Congenital rubella syndrome is associated with bilateral sensorineural hearing loss, which is one of the key features of the syndrome.

p.40
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What are the symptoms during the prodromal stage of scarlet fever?
A) Rash and desquamation
B) Persistent high fever, sore throat, headache, follicular tonsillitis
C) Rash with sandpaper feel
D) Red, flushed cheeks with perioral pallor
E) Strawberry tongue

B) Persistent high fever, sore throat, headache, follicular tonsillitis
Explanation: The prodromal stage of scarlet fever is characterized by an acute onset of persistent high fever, sore throat, headache, and follicular tonsillitis.

p.33
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which of the following is part of the triad (3C) of congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Hepatomegaly
B) Splenomegaly
C) Cataracts
D) Microcephaly
E) Hydrocephalus

C) Cataracts
Explanation: The triad (3C) of congenital rubella syndrome includes cardiac defects, cataracts, and cochlear defects (bilateral sensorineural hearing loss).

p.13
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What happens during the pathophysiology of measles?
A) The virus infects the gastrointestinal tract
B) The virus infects the urinary tract
C) The virus infects the upper respiratory tract and regional lymph nodes
D) The virus infects the cardiovascular system
E) The virus infects the central nervous system

C) The virus infects the upper respiratory tract and regional lymph nodes
Explanation: During the pathophysiology of measles, the virus infects the upper respiratory tract (URT) and regional lymph nodes (L.Ns.), leading to viremia and spreading the virus to the respiratory tract, skin, and other organs.

p.41
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

Which of the following is NOT a complication of scarlet fever?
A) Otitis media
B) Bronchitis
C) Sinusitis
D) Diabetes
E) Meningitis

D) Diabetes
Explanation: Diabetes is not listed as a complication of scarlet fever. The complications of scarlet fever include otitis media, bronchitis, sinusitis, meningitis, osteomyelitis, and arthritis.

p.12
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 3-year-old boy with a rash that started on the head and progressed to the trunk and extremities, along with a runny nose, fever, cough, and red, crusty eyes?
A) Scarlet Fever
B) Roseola Infantum
C) Measles virus (rubeola)
D) German Measles (Rubella)
E) Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

C) Measles virus (rubeola)
Explanation: The combination of symptoms including a rash that started on the head and progressed to the trunk and extremities, runny nose, fever, cough, and red, crusty eyes, along with the patient's recent immigration and lack of immunization records, strongly suggests measles.

p.12
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is the typical temperature range for a patient with measles?
A) 37-38°C
B) 38-39°C
C) 39-40°C
D) 40-41°C
E) 41-42°C

C) 39-40°C
Explanation: Patients with measles often present with high fever, typically in the range of 39-40°C.

p.41
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with rheumatic fever?
A) Pancarditis
B) Migratory polyarthritis
C) Subcutaneous nodules
D) Erythema marginatum
E) Otitis media

E) Otitis media
Explanation: Otitis media is not associated with rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever causes symptoms such as pancarditis, migratory polyarthritis, subcutaneous nodules, erythema marginatum, and Sydenham chorea.

p.12
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

How is measles differentiated from German measles (rubella) in terms of rash appearance?
A) Measles rash is scattered, rubella rash is confluent
B) Measles rash is confluent, rubella rash is scattered
C) Both rashes are confluent
D) Both rashes are scattered
E) Measles rash is only on the trunk, rubella rash is only on the extremities

B) Measles rash is confluent, rubella rash is scattered
Explanation: Measles rash tends to be confluent, meaning the spots merge together, whereas rubella rash is typically scattered and does not merge.

p.12
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is a characteristic finding during oral inspection in a patient with measles?
A) Strawberry tongue
B) Koplik spots
C) White patches on the tonsils
D) Petechiae on the soft palate
E) Ulcers on the gums

B) Koplik spots
Explanation: Koplik spots are small, white lesions on the buccal mucosa that are pathognomonic for measles and help in its diagnosis.

p.12
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with measles?
A) Runny nose
B) Fever
C) Cough
D) Red, crusty eyes
E) Sore throat

E) Sore throat
Explanation: While runny nose, fever, cough, and red, crusty eyes are common symptoms of measles, a sore throat is not typically associated with this disease.

p.13
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

During which period is a person with measles most infectious?
A) 1 day before and 1 day after the onset of rash
B) 2 days before and 2 days after the onset of rash
C) 3 days before and 3 days after the onset of rash
D) 5 days before and 5 days after the onset of rash
E) 7 days before and 7 days after the onset of rash

D) 5 days before and 5 days after the onset of rash
Explanation: A person with measles is most infectious 5 days before and 5 days after the onset of the rash.

p.55
Kawasaki Disease Overview

What is the purpose of echocardiography in Kawasaki Disease?
A) To evaluate liver function
B) To assess kidney function
C) To evaluate coronary artery aneurysms
D) To measure blood pressure
E) To check for respiratory issues

C) To evaluate coronary artery aneurysms
Explanation: Echocardiography is performed to evaluate coronary artery aneurysms in patients with Kawasaki Disease, and it should be done at diagnosis, at 2 weeks, and at 6-8 weeks after onset.

p.33
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of intrauterine rubella infection?
A) Miscarriage
B) Preterm birth
C) Fetal growth restriction
D) Cardiac defect
E) All of the above

D) Cardiac defect
Explanation: Cardiac defects are a feature of congenital rubella syndrome, not intrauterine rubella infection. Intrauterine rubella infection is associated with miscarriage, preterm birth, and fetal growth restriction.

p.33
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

What is the most common cardiac defect associated with congenital rubella syndrome?
A) Atrial septal defect (ASD)
B) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
C) Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
D) Tetralogy of Fallot
E) Coarctation of the aorta

B) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Explanation: The most common cardiac defect associated with congenital rubella syndrome is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), along with pulmonary stenosis (PS).

p.13
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is the primary source of infection for measles?
A) Contaminated water
B) Infected child
C) Infected animal
D) Contaminated food
E) Soil

B) Infected child
Explanation: The primary source of infection for measles is an infected child, who can spread the virus to others.

p.55
Kawasaki Disease Overview

When are IV glucocorticoids used in the treatment of Kawasaki Disease?
A) As the first line of treatment
B) Only for pain management
C) In cases of treatment-refractory disease
D) For respiratory complications
E) For gastrointestinal issues

C) In cases of treatment-refractory disease
Explanation: IV glucocorticoids are used especially in cases of treatment-refractory Kawasaki Disease, as they lower the risk of coronary involvement.

p.13
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

What is the incubation period for measles?
A) 1-3 days
B) 4-6 days
C) 10-12 days
D) 14-16 days
E) 18-20 days

C) 10-12 days
Explanation: The incubation period for measles is 10-12 days, during which the virus resides in the mucosa of the nasopharynx and throat.

p.40
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What is a characteristic feature of the rash in scarlet fever?
A) It is vesicular
B) It is pustular
C) It has a sandpaper feel
D) It is bullous
E) It is maculopapular

C) It has a sandpaper feel
Explanation: The rash in scarlet fever is brightly erythematous, diffuse, and finely papular, giving a sandpaper feel to the skin.

p.40
Scarlet Fever Symptoms and Treatment

What is a typical appearance of the cheeks in scarlet fever?
A) Pale with cyanosis
B) Red with perioral pallor
C) Yellow with jaundice
D) Blue with cyanosis
E) Green with chlorosis

B) Red with perioral pallor
Explanation: In scarlet fever, the cheeks typically appear red and flushed with characteristic perioral pallor.

p.13
Measles Diagnosis and Complications

How is measles primarily transmitted?
A) Through contaminated water
B) Through direct contact with skin
C) Droplet and airborne route
D) Through insect bites
E) Through contaminated food

C) Droplet and airborne route
Explanation: Measles is extremely contagious and is primarily transmitted through the droplet and airborne route.

Study Smarter, Not Harder
Study Smarter, Not Harder