p.19
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
Which statement about ventral hernias is true?
Ventral hernias are primary hernias, associated with an anterior incision of the abdominal wall.
p.25
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
What is a potential outcome of postpartum thyroiditis?
It may cause hypothyroidism.
p.25
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
Which statement about postpartum thyroiditis is true regarding antibody positivity?
Antibody positivity brings with it a high chance of evolution towards transient hypothyroidism.
p.24
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What type of tumor is thyroid medullary carcinoma?
A neuroendocrine tumor of C cells.
p.21
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is true about the Lichtenstein alloplastic procedure?
It is an anterior approach operation, performed with a mesh.
p.22
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the alternative names for sportsman hernia?
Inguinodynia, athletic pubalgia, Gilmore’s groin, or hockey groin.
p.16
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are potential gateways for pathogens?
Peritoneal drain, surgical sutures, urinary catheters, venous catheters.
p.16
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are systemic risk factors that increase surgical infection incidence?
Systemically disseminated local infection, obesity, contamination, diabetes mellitus, old age.
p.5
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What are the major glomerular clinical syndromes?
Acute glomerulonephritis, asymptomatic hematuria, proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, renal dysfunction syndrome, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
p.25
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
What are common symptoms of hypothyroidism?
Puffy eyes, dry skin, and loss of eyebrows.
p.14
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What laboratory findings are associated with the diagnosis of CID?
Low activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), low prothrombin time (PT), hypofibrinogenemia, thrombocytopenia, and positive D-dimers.
p.3
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What is a defining feature of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?
Rapidly progressive renal failure.
p.3
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What causes proteinuria in kidney disorders?
Structural damage to the glomerular barrier.
p.15
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What symptoms may be present in infections of deep surgical wounds?
Fever and/or leukocytosis, sclero-tegumentary jaundice, rectorrhagia, dysphagia, odynophagia.
p.22
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What usually causes a sportsman hernia?
Tension in the adductor muscles that is inserted on the pubis.
p.25
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
Which clinical feature cannot be said about hypothyroidism in children?
Children may develop early puberty.
p.20
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is a true statement about incarcerated hernias?
They often require emergency surgical intervention.
p.8
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
What are the true statements regarding the ASA classification?
Age is a factor, it includes 6 categories, it was developed to predict operator risk, congestive heart failure is a factor, and the rate of postoperative pulmonary complications increases with ASA class.
p.4
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What do patients with reactive systemic amyloidosis (secondary AA) often present with?
Nephrotic syndrome, chronic kidney disease.
p.24
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What is a characteristic of autoimmune hypothyroidism?
Lymphoid infiltration of the thyroid.
p.15
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
When should preoperative antibiotics be administered for optimal concentration?
One hour before the incision.
p.31
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is done to the CBD lumen during the procedure?
Irrigation of CBD lumen with saline.
p.4
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What can modify the podocytic cytoskeleton?
Abnormalities of cytoskeletal proteins, capillary loop abnormalities, lesions of slit diaphragm proteins, mesangial proliferation, direct injury by viral infection or drugs.
p.21
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What does orchitis suggest in the treatment of inguinal hernias?
The presence of a swollen and sensitive testicle.
Which statement about toxic multinodular goiter is true?
b) Subacute thyroiditis may be accompanied by VSH levels within normal limits.
p.16
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the basic principles for the prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia?
Daily detubing assessment, maintaining physical fitness through early mobilization, and raising the thorax by positioning the bed at 30-45 degrees.
p.12
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
How can von Willebrand disease be identified?
Through reduced factor VIII activity and reduced von Willebrand factor activity, normal platelet function, and it occurs in both sexes.
p.12
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the causes of acquired hemostasis disorders associated with bleeding?
Advanced liver diseases, uremia, and anticoagulant therapy.
p.19
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What occurs in an Amyand hernia?
The herniac sac contains the cecal appendix.
p.14
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the main characteristics of disseminated intravascular coagulation (CID)?
Diffuse thrombosis, diffuse hemorrhages due to coagulation factors consumption, fibrino-platelet thrombi systemic deposition causing diffuse tissue damage, and may be precipitated by infection or shock.
p.14
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
Which factors can be incriminated in the etiology of CID?
Release of tissue debris, extensive endothelial damage, and some types of interventions involving the prostate, lung, or malignant tumors.
p.17
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is required for necrotizing soft tissue infections?
Wide surgical debridement of the necrotic tissue.
p.3
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What is a key characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?
Massive proteinuria (> 3.5 g/day).
p.16
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the most common nosocomial infections?
Pneumonia associated with hospitalization, urinary tract infections, ventilator-associated pneumonia.
p.2
Diagnostic Test Validity and Predictive Values
What does a relative risk (RR) value greater than 1 suggest?
A positive relationship between exposure and disease.
p.28
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What initial treatments are recommended for acute cholecystitis?
Stopping oral food intake, intravenous administration of fluids, and antibiotic therapy.
p.11
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What should be done with the blood unit after a minor transfusion reaction?
Return it to the transfusion center to repeat compatibility.
p.17
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What directly affects the rate of catheter-associated urinary tract infections?
Duration of use for urinary catheter.
p.17
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the characteristics of necrotizing soft tissue infections?
Pathogens invasion, tissue necrosis, and systemic signs of sepsis.
p.1
Do-Not-Resuscitate Orders and Advanced Directives
What is a Do-Not-Resuscitate Order (DNR)?
A type of advanced directive document that details care in cases of severe illness, allowing refusal of specific therapies.
What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism?
c) atrophic hypothyroidism
p.12
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
What are the methods for preoperative assessment of bleeding and coagulation disorders?
Patient history, physical examination, superior endoscopic evaluation, abdominal ultrasound, and laboratory tests (aPTT, PT, bleeding time).
p.5
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What characterizes IgM nephropathy?
Increased mesangial cellularity in most glomeruli and episodes of hematuria and nephrotic syndrome.
What is indicated in the last trimester of pregnancy for hyperthyroidism?
b) PTU (propylthiouracil)
p.9
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
Why are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs generally contraindicated in patients with renal issues?
Due to nephrotoxic effects.
p.13
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What symptoms of an incompatible blood transfusion can occur in patients under general anesthesia?
Agitation and back pain, representing the installation of CID.
p.6
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What is Fabry Disease?
A lysosomal storage disease caused by a deficiency of the enzyme α-galactosidase.
p.18
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the characteristics of a breast abscess?
Generalized hypersensitivity, edema and erythema, palpable mass, soft tissue infection, and Staphylococcus origin.
p.19
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is a common symptom of an obturator hernia?
The patient may have paresthesias or intense antero-medial thigh pain.
p.8
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
What cardiovascular responses occur due to surgical stress?
Increased catecholamine levels, increased myocardial oxygen demand, suppression of the fibrinolytic system, suppression of the coagulation cascade, and decreased risk of myocardial ischemia.
p.14
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is a key diagnostic criterion for CID?
Hypofibrinogenemia and thrombocytopenia.
p.16
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are important indicators for surgical reoperation in postoperative intra-abdominal infection?
Fever, leukocytosis, diffuse abdominal pain, abdominal guarding, rigidity, and rebound tenderness.
p.4
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What are the causes of secondary membranous glomerulonephritis?
Certain medications, pregnancy, infections, autoimmune diseases, neoplasms.
p.7
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
How does hyperglycemia affect the immune system?
It negatively influences the function of the immune system, especially phagocytic activity.
p.20
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are common postoperative complications?
Seroma, wound infection, hernia recurrence, and postoperative neuropathies.
p.13
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What occurs when a patient is under general anesthesia in relation to CID?
No other manifestations occur until generalized bleeding as a result of CID.
p.30
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
When is prophylactic cholecystectomy generally recommended?
For any finding of gallbladder wall calcification on imaging studies.
p.29
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is a disadvantage of ERCP?
It cannot extract stones despite establishing the diagnosis of lithiasis.
p.21
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is true regarding the TEP procedure?
It does not involve entry into the peritoneal cavity.
p.8
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
In which situations is the evaluation of the preoperative serum ionogram recommended?
In patients with chronic pathology, long-term anticoagulant therapy, long-term diuretic therapy, persistent vomiting, and young patients at high risk of fluid or electrolyte disorder.
p.21
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
Which statement about postoperative recurrence in hernias is true?
All hernias have the potential for post-herniorraphy recurrence.
p.7
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
What is true regarding preoperative evaluation in diabetes patients requiring surgery?
Preoperative evaluation of metabolic control and associated complications is necessary.
p.5
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What does mixed nephrotic and nephritic syndrome involve?
It involves mesangial cells, the endothelium, glomerular basement membrane, podocytes, and lysosomal damage.
p.24
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
At what age can prophylactic thyroidectomy be performed for patients with mutations within MEN2?
As early as 3 years of age.
p.5
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What is true about the investigation of glomerular disease?
C3 and C4 levels may be low, antinuclear antibodies are present in systemic lupus erythematosus, and cryoglobulins are elevated in cryoglobulinemia.
p.2
Diagnostic Test Validity and Predictive Values
What is the positive predictive value (PPV)?
The probability that a patient with a positive test has a disease.
p.13
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is the role of tranexamic acid?
Inhibits fibrinolysis and clot dissolution, with a hemostatic role.
p.13
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What can lead to an increased risk of postoperative bleeding?
Inadequate control of hemostasis during the intervention.
p.30
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the relative indications for common duct exploration?
Palpation of a gallstone, jaundice, acute biliary pancreatitis, small gallbladder stones, ductal dilation.
p.26
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
Does replacing T4 therapy with a combination of T4 and T3 provide a definite benefit to quality of life?
No, it does not have a definite benefit.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What complication can arise from ascites in liver pathology patients post-surgery?
Increased risk of wound dehiscence.
p.18
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is required for osteomyelitis in infections of the foot?
Long-term antibiotic therapy and excisional debridement.
p.1
Patient Rights and Informed Consent
Which of the following represents a patient's right?
a) confidentiality, c) informed consent, d) full disclosure of information.
p.5
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What blood pressure must be maintained for renoprotection in diabetic nephropathy?
Blood pressure must be maintained <130/80 mmHg.
p.20
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What can incarcerated hernias lead to?
Intestinal obstruction and ischemia.
p.8
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
When is cardiac ultrasound or stress test evaluation indicated?
In patients with low or undetermined cardiac function, high cardiovascular risk, and arterial hypertension.
p.4
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What are the characteristics of podocytes in HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) under light microscopy?
Increased in volume, hyperplastic, coarsely vacuolated, containing protein absorption droplets.
p.22
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What types of repair techniques are used for ventral hernias?
Anatomical, alloplastic, and component separation techniques.
p.25
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
Which statement about primary hypothyroidism is true?
Patients with ischemic heart disease will receive initial doses of 25 mcg/day.
p.24
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What is the prognosis for medullary carcinoma?
Often familial behavior, local metastases, good prognosis.
p.4
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What conditions may be associated with AL amyloidosis?
Multiple myeloma, systemic lupus erythematosus, chronic granulocytic leukemia, macroglobulinemia Waldenström, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
p.24
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What type of antibodies are commonly found in autoimmune thyroid conditions?
Serum antibodies to the thyroid.
p.11
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is true about primary fibrinolysis?
It consists of activating the fibrinolysis cascade with inhibition of plasmin production.
p.29
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
Is acute suppurative cholangitis a chronic condition?
No, it is not a chronic condition.
p.28
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the symptoms of acute cholangitis?
Jaundice, abdominal pain in the right hypochondrium, and fever associated with chills.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What vitamin deficiency contributes to bleeding risk in liver pathology patients?
Depletion of vitamin K deposits.
p.18
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What symptoms do patients with angiocholitis typically present?
Jaundice, abdominal pain in the left hypochondrium, Charcot’s triad, and fulminant fever.
p.19
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the four types of hernias clinically?
Asymptomatic, symptomatic, subacute, and acute.
p.22
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is a key requirement for surgical techniques in ventral hernias?
Must minimize the risk of postoperative recurrence.
p.20
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is required within 4-6 hours of incarceration of a hernia?
Surgical intervention to avoid complications.
p.17
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are risk factors for breast abscess?
Smoking, obesity, and pregnancy over age 30.
p.20
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the options for hernia repair?
Anatomical, alloplastic, component separation, and non-invasive techniques.
p.9
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
Why is arterial hypotension significant in renal management?
It may prevent renal malfunction.
What should be considered in the differential diagnosis of acute cholecystitis?
Acute hepatitis, acute pancreatitis, perforated ulcer, and acute appendicitis.
p.24
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What is the role of levothyroxine in papillary and follicular carcinomas?
It reduces the risk of relapse.
p.2
Diagnostic Test Validity and Predictive Values
What is the performance of acceptable screening tests typically in terms of sensitivity?
Typically >80% sensitive.
p.6
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
Is renal function normal in Fabry Disease?
No, renal function is not normal.
p.28
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is Reynold's pentad in cholangitis?
Jaundice, abdominal pain, fever, hypotension, and mental confusion.
p.29
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What type of bowel obstruction is caused by a gallstone?
Mechanical bowel obstruction.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What surgical issue can arise from deficient techniques?
Surgical wound dehiscence.
p.21
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
Which statement about hernias in women is true?
Women rarely have indirect inguinal hernias.
p.22
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is the prognosis of a sportsman hernia?
It is a hernia with a severe prognosis.
p.19
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What occurs in a Hernia Littre?
The herniac sac contains a Meckel’s diverticulum.
p.2
Durable Power of Attorney in Medical Decisions
What is a durable power of attorney?
A legal document that designates a second party as a surrogate decision maker for medical issues.
p.1
Organ Donation and Unsuitable Conditions
What conditions may render organs unsuitable for donation?
a) neoplasm with loco-regional dissemination, b) sepsis, c) organ-specific infection or disease.
p.2
Durable Power of Attorney in Medical Decisions
What type of document details a patient’s wishes in specific medical situations?
A written document that outlines wishes regarding resuscitation, ventilation, and extraordinary maintenance of life.
p.28
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is the role of ultrasound in diagnosing acute cholecystitis?
Ultrasound is very useful for establishing the definitive diagnosis.
p.6
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
Which variant of focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis is characterized by lesions at the glomerular tip?
Variant with lesion of the glomerular tip.
p.6
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What skin condition is associated with Fabry Disease?
Cutaneous angiokeratomas.
p.9
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
How can ascites complicate surgery?
Increased risk of wound dehiscence and high risk of eventration after abdominal surgery.
p.26
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
Which bacteria contain TSH-binding sites?
Yersinia enterocolitis, Yersinia pseudotuberculosis, Escherichia coli, some gram-positive bacteria, and Yersinia pestis.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What postoperative factors can lead to atelectasis?
Pain at the incision site, drowsiness from analgesics, cough suppression, and lack of mobility.
p.20
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What vessels ensure the vascularization of the central abdominal wall?
Superior and inferior epigastric vessels.
p.1
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
What must a patient demonstrate to be considered competent?
a) not be diagnosed as presently psychotic or intoxicated, b) have an understanding of his/her medical condition, e) be able to make decisions that are in agreement with their present values.
p.17
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What can result from delayed diagnosis and treatment of necrotizing soft tissue infections?
Death and extensive tissue loss.
p.16
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
How can the rate of surgical wound infections be significantly reduced?
By reducing the duration of surgical intervention, blood glucose regulation, maintaining body temperature, and oxygen administration.
What are the three types of pigment stones?
Black, brown, and reddish.
p.2
Durable Power of Attorney in Medical Decisions
Is durable power of attorney valid in all US states?
No, it is not valid in New York state.
p.12
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
Which congenital hemostasis disorders have a risk of bleeding?
Factor V Leiden mutation, Hemophilia A, and Von Willebrand's disease.
What does ultrasound provide high sensitivity for in biliary tract disorders?
Detection of biliary dilatations.
p.2
Confidentiality and Exceptions in Medical Practice
When is confidentiality not mandated for a patient?
When the patient is considered to be suicidal or homicidal.
From which cells does medullary carcinoma arise?
Thyroid epithelium cells.
p.7
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
What is used in the preoperative management of thrombocytopenia?
Administration of l-Desamino-8-D-arginine-vasopressin (DDAVP).
p.28
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
Can cholecystectomy be performed laparoscopically?
Yes, but the classic approach may be needed due to bleeding or difficulty establishing anatomical landmarks.
p.9
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are thoracic drainage tubes used for?
Air, blood, or fluid drainage from the pleural cavity.
p.30
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the advantages of the laparoscopic approach?
Reduction of postoperative pain and reduction of wound and lung complications.
p.26
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
Can daily treatment for hypothyroidism be given in several doses?
No, it is typically given as a single daily dose.
p.26
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
What are other causes of hyperthyroidism?
Solitary toxic adenoma, toxic multinodular goiter, Quervain’s thyroiditis, antepartum thyroiditis, and amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis.
p.31
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is the first step in open CBD exploration?
Mobilization of the liver through the Kocher maneuver.
p.15
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is the highest risk factor for the development of a urinary tract infection?
The presence of a urinary catheter.
p.4
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
Which neoplasms may cause glomerulonephritis?
Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Malignant melanoma, Leukemia, Kaposi’s sarcoma.
p.1
Durable Power of Attorney in Medical Decisions
Under what circumstances may doctors eliminate respiratory assistance?
When the family believes that the elimination of care is consistent with what the patient would like.
p.17
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is a manifestation of tetanus?
Stiffness of the masseter muscle.
p.8
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
When is preoperative chest radiography indicated?
In patients undergoing intrathoracic surgery, those with signs of active lung disease, neoplastic patients, patients with cardiovascular disease, and patients with dysphagia.
p.5
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What does Class M1 in the Oxford Histological Classification of IgA nephropathy indicate?
Class M1 means mesangial hypercellularity >0.5.
p.9
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
What are the main targets in the perioperative management of patients with BCR or IRA?
Maintenance of renal volemia and perfusion.
p.13
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What can acute blood transfusion reactions cause?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (CID).
p.3
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What is the first stage of diabetic nephropathy?
Isolated thickening of the glomerular basement membrane with mesangial expansion.
p.11
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
How does aging affect hemostasis processes?
Aging brings major changes in hemostasis processes.
p.2
Durable Power of Attorney in Medical Decisions
What does a durable power of attorney allow a designated individual to do?
Make decisions consistent with the patient’s values.
p.12
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the true statements about Hemophilia A?
Appears only in males, bleeding occurs in mucous membranes and skin, occurs due to reduced or absent factor VIII activity, aPTT is prolonged, and platelet function is normal.
p.7
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
In which condition are nasogastric tubes most commonly used?
Patients with ileus or occlusion.
p.2
Diagnostic Test Validity and Predictive Values
What is a false-negative finding?
Occurs in patients with a disease and a negative test, approximated by (1 - specificity).
p.3
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
Which condition is NOT considered secondary glomerular impairment?
Congenital nephrotic syndrome.
p.29
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is usually increased in patients with cholangitis?
The number of leukocytes.
p.9
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
How can a gastrostomy be placed?
Surgically or endoscopically.
p.9
Patient Rights and Informed Consent
What does the MELD score take into account?
INR, Bilirubin, Transaminases, Albumin, and Creatinine.
p.9
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
Is ascites drainage during surgical intervention recommended?
No, it is not recommended.
p.26
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
What autoimmune substrate is associated with Graves' disease?
It has an autoimmune substrate.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What factor related to patient mobility can contribute to wound dehiscence?
Prolonged immobilization.
p.11
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
When do acute lung injuries most frequently occur during transfusions?
During transfusions containing plasma.
p.12
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
What factors predict the need for a massive blood transfusion?
Positive FAST ultrasound, presence of a penetrating wound, craniocerebral trauma, heart rate over 120 beats/minute, and systolic pressure below 90 mmHg.
p.3
Nephrotic Syndrome and Kidney Disorders
What is an example of secondary glomerular impairment?
Systemic lupus erythematosus.
p.9
Perioperative Management and Patient Evaluation
What is a significant risk when administering opioids to patients with BCR?
High risk of respiratory depression.
p.9
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is the purpose of a gastrostomy?
Used for feeding or drainage.
p.13
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
In what situation is tranexamic acid recommended?
For patients with severe trauma and massive bleeding.
p.29
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What should be initiated in acute suppurative cholangitis?
Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy targeting Gram-negative bacteria.
p.29
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What should be done once the acute episode of pancreatitis has subsided?
The gallbladder should be removed as soon as possible to avoid recurrences.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What causes an increased risk of thrombosis in patients with liver pathology?
Poor S protein production.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What mechanism contributes to postoperative atelectasis related to general anesthesia?
Patients cannot cough or sigh, impairing mucociliary clearance.
p.11
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is the first step in managing minor transfusion reactions?
Immediate cessation of transfusion.
p.28
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
Which bacteria are commonly associated with acute cholecystitis?
Staphylococcus aureus, Enterococcus Faecalis, Clostridium Difficile.
p.11
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What causes trauma-induced coagulopathy?
Excessive consumption of coagulation factors.
p.11
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is true about hypercoagulability states in patients with liver disease?
They may have bleeding, hypercoagulability, or both at the same time.
p.29
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What does CT with oral contrast provide for gallstone ileus?
It is the investigation of choice for diagnosis.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What platelet disorders increase thrombosis risk in liver pathology patients?
Disorders in both number and function.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is a key management strategy for postoperative pain to prevent atelectasis?
Proper management of postoperative pain.
p.13
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
How is severe bleeding from wounds defined?
Bleeding that requires at least 10 units of red blood cell mass in the first 5 hours.
p.13
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are essential measures to take in case of bleeding?
Early control of bleeding during transport.
p.11
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What can cause primary fibrinolysis?
Congenital disorders of coagulation cascade inhibitors.
p.28
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What can choledocholithiasis cause?
Biliary colic, obstruction, cholangitis, or pancreatitis.
p.26
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
What is the timing for assessing patients after initiating therapy for hypothyroidism?
Approximately one month after the initiation of therapy.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is a risk associated with liver pathology in surgical patients regarding coagulation?
Increased risk of heavy bleeding due to decreased production of coagulation factors.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What factor favors the development of atelectasis during surgery?
General anesthesia, regardless of the agent used.
p.29
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What may be required if the bile duct cannot be cleared of stones by laparoscopic exploration?
Open bile duct exploration or postoperative ERCP and sphincterotomy.
p.29
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
Where is the pain typically located in acute pancreatitis?
In the upper abdomen, often radiating to the back.
p.9
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
Is preoperative control of ascites with diuretics recommended?
No, as drainage will be performed intraoperatively.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What can lead to surgical wound dehiscence?
Tissue ischemia from excessive tightening of the threads.
p.30
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is the 5-year survival rate for gallbladder cancer?
It is not good (> 80% at 5 years).
p.30
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What are the main risks associated with laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
Injuries from blind trocar insertion or injudicious use of electrocautery.
p.28
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What may be increased in patients with obstruction of the pancreatic duct?
Serum amylase and lipase.
p.26
Competency and Decision-Making in Patients
What characteristic eye damage is associated with Graves' disease?
Eye damage is characteristic of Graves' disease.
p.10
Surgical Complications and Infection Management
What is a recommended preoperative action to manage postoperative atelectasis?
Stop smoking 8 weeks before the intervention.
