What is the major site of definitive hematopoiesis between 6 and 30 weeks of gestation? A) Yolk sac B) Spleen C) Bone marrow D) Liver E) Thymus
D) Liver Explanation: The liver becomes the major site of definitive hematopoiesis from 6 to 30 weeks of gestation, producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets with adult-type hemoglobin.
What does the neural plate develop into during embryonic development? A) The heart B) The neural tube C) The digestive system D) The skeletal system E) The respiratory system
B) The neural tube Explanation: The neural plate forms from the ectoderm and folds into the neural tube, which is crucial for the development of the central nervous system (CNS).
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p.5
Hematopoiesis Developmental Stages

What is the major site of definitive hematopoiesis between 6 and 30 weeks of gestation?
A) Yolk sac
B) Spleen
C) Bone marrow
D) Liver
E) Thymus

D) Liver
Explanation: The liver becomes the major site of definitive hematopoiesis from 6 to 30 weeks of gestation, producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets with adult-type hemoglobin.

p.10
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What does the neural plate develop into during embryonic development?
A) The heart
B) The neural tube
C) The digestive system
D) The skeletal system
E) The respiratory system

B) The neural tube
Explanation: The neural plate forms from the ectoderm and folds into the neural tube, which is crucial for the development of the central nervous system (CNS).

p.10
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What are neural crest cells responsible for?
A) Forming the central nervous system
B) Developing the heart
C) Forming parts of the peripheral nervous system and other tissues
D) Creating muscle tissue
E) Developing the lungs

C) Forming parts of the peripheral nervous system and other tissues
Explanation: Neural crest cells break away from the edge of the neural tube and contribute to the formation of the peripheral nervous system, as well as other tissues like melanocytes and facial cartilage.

p.8
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What is interstitial growth?
A) Growth from the surface
B) Growth from within
C) Growth that occurs only in cartilage
D) Growth that occurs only in bone
E) Growth that adds layers to the surface

B) Growth from within
Explanation: Interstitial growth refers to the process of bone or cartilage growth from within, distinguishing it from appositional growth, which adds new layers to the surface.

p.6
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What is Anencephaly?
A) A condition where the brain forms normally
B) A neural tube defect where the brain fails to form
C) A type of brain tumor
D) A genetic disorder affecting the spinal cord
E) A developmental disorder of the heart

B) A neural tube defect where the brain fails to form
Explanation: Anencephaly is specifically described as a neural tube defect resulting from the failure of the rostral portion of the neural tube to close, leading to the absence of major parts of the brain and skull, and it is typically fatal.

p.3
Collagen Fiber Regulation

What regulates the size and assembly of collagen fibers?
A) Only proteoglycans
B) FACIT collagens, proteoglycans, and small leucine-rich proteins
C) Only small leucine-rich proteins
D) Only collagen IV
E) Only fibroblast cells

B) FACIT collagens, proteoglycans, and small leucine-rich proteins
Explanation: These components work together to control the diameter and assembly of collagen fibers, ensuring proper tissue function and structure.

p.4
Keratinocyte Functions in Skin

What do eccrine glands primarily secrete?
A) Lipids
B) Proteins
C) Water and salts
D) Hormones
E) Carbohydrates

C) Water and salts
Explanation: Eccrine glands primarily secrete water and salts (sweat), which play a crucial role in thermoregulation.

p.9
Mesencephalon Epithelium Structure

What is the primary function of the mesencephalon?
A) Breathing regulation
B) Vision, hearing, and motor control
C) Sensory relay
D) Coordination of movement
E) Sleep regulation

B) Vision, hearing, and motor control
Explanation: The mesencephalon, or midbrain, is responsible for basic functions such as vision, hearing, and motor control, making it a crucial part of the brain's functionality.

p.5
Hematopoiesis Developmental Stages

During which stage of development does primitive hematopoiesis occur?
A) Liver stage (6-30 weeks)
B) Spleen stage (9-28 weeks)
C) Yolk sac stage (3-8 weeks)
D) Bone marrow stage (28 weeks to adult)
E) Neural plate formation

C) Yolk sac stage (3-8 weeks)
Explanation: Primitive hematopoiesis occurs in the yolk sac from around 3 to 8 weeks of embryonic development, marking the earliest site of blood cell formation.

p.5
Hematopoiesis Developmental Stages

At what stage does the bone marrow become the primary site of hematopoiesis?
A) 3 weeks
B) 6 weeks
C) 28 weeks
D) 30 weeks
E) At birth

C) 28 weeks
Explanation: By 28 weeks of gestation, the bone marrow becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis, continuing to produce all blood cell types throughout life.

p.8
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What happens in Anencephaly?
A) The spinal cord protrudes through the skin
B) The brain tissue protrudes through the skull
C) The upper portion of the neural tube fails to close
D) The lower portion of the neural tube fails to close
E) The brain develops normally

C) The upper portion of the neural tube fails to close
Explanation: Anencephaly occurs when the rostral (upper) portion of the neural tube fails to close, leading to the absence of most of the brain and skull.

p.6
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What are the three primary brain vesicles formed during development?
A) Prosencephalon, Mesencephalon, Rhombencephalon
B) Cerebellum, Cerebrum, Brainstem
C) Diencephalon, Telencephalon, Myelencephalon
D) Frontal lobe, Parietal lobe, Occipital lobe
E) Medulla, Pons, Midbrain

A) Prosencephalon, Mesencephalon, Rhombencephalon
Explanation: During development, the brain initially forms three primary vesicles: the Prosencephalon (forebrain), Mesencephalon (midbrain), and Rhombencephalon (hindbrain), which later subdivide into more complex structures.

p.10
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What is neurogenesis?
A) The process of cell death
B) The birth of neurons
C) The formation of blood vessels
D) The development of muscle fibers
E) The differentiation of skin cells

B) The birth of neurons
Explanation: Neurogenesis refers to the process of neuron formation, which begins as vesicles form and is essential for the rapid development of the brain's structure and function.

p.6
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What is long-term depression (LTD) in the cerebellum associated with?
A) NMDA receptor activation
B) Synaptic plasticity without NMDA receptors
C) Increased neurotransmitter release
D) Enhanced motor learning
E) Decreased calcium signaling

B) Synaptic plasticity without NMDA receptors
Explanation: Long-term depression (LTD) in the cerebellum is a type of synaptic plasticity that does not involve NMDA receptors but relies on Ca2+, diacylglycerol (DAG), and IP3 signaling, playing a significant role in motor learning and coordination.

p.7
Bone matrix renewal and osteocytic osteolysis

What is osteocytic osteolysis?
A) A process of bone formation
B) A process of bone degradation
C) A type of bone fracture
D) A method of calcium absorption
E) A process of muscle growth

B) A process of bone degradation
Explanation: Osteocytic osteolysis refers to the small-scale breakdown of the bone matrix initiated by osteocytes to maintain calcium homeostasis.

p.7
Cortical bone formation (osteoprogenitor to osteoblast)

What is the role of osteoprogenitor cells in bone formation?
A) They degrade bone matrix
B) They differentiate into osteoblasts
C) They release neurotransmitters
D) They form cartilage
E) They inhibit bone remodeling

B) They differentiate into osteoblasts
Explanation: Osteoprogenitor cells are precursor cells that differentiate into osteoblasts, which are responsible for forming new bone and eventually become osteocytes that maintain the bone matrix.

p.4
Collagen Fiber Regulation

In smooth muscle, calcium ions bind to which protein to initiate contraction?
A) Troponin
B) Myosin
C) Calmodulin
D) Actin
E) Tropomyosin

C) Calmodulin
Explanation: In smooth muscle, calcium ions bind to calmodulin, which activates myosin light-chain kinase (MLCK) to enable muscle contraction.

p.5
Hematopoiesis Developmental Stages

What is the primary function of Hassall’s corpuscles in the thymus?
A) Blood cell production
B) T cell development and immune tolerance regulation
C) Oxygen transport
D) Filtering blood
E) Nutrient absorption

B) T cell development and immune tolerance regulation
Explanation: Hassall’s corpuscles are structures in the thymic medulla that are believed to play a role in T cell development and the regulation of immune tolerance, which is crucial for the immune system's function.

p.8
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What are primary brain vesicles?
A) Structures that develop into the spinal cord
B) Regions that develop into adult brain structures
C) The final form of the brain
D) Only found in lower vertebrates
E) Non-functional remnants of the neural tube

B) Regions that develop into adult brain structures
Explanation: Primary brain vesicles are regions formed during early brain development that eventually develop into the adult brain structures, including the prosencephalon and mesencephalon.

p.7
Intramembranous ossification

What characterizes intramembranous ossification?
A) Formation of bone from cartilage
B) Formation of bone directly from mesenchymal cells
C) Involvement of osteoclasts
D) Occurs only in adults
E) Requires a blood supply

B) Formation of bone directly from mesenchymal cells
Explanation: Intramembranous ossification is the process where mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts, forming bone directly without a cartilage precursor, primarily responsible for forming flat bones like those in the skull.

p.3
Basement Membrane Components

Which molecules are key components of the basement membrane?
A) Only laminin
B) Collagen IV, laminin, and entactin
C) Only collagen IV
D) Only entactin
E) Fibroblasts and mesenchymal cells

B) Collagen IV, laminin, and entactin
Explanation: These molecules provide structural support and stability to the basement membrane, facilitating proper cell anchorage.

p.3
Erythroblastosis Fetalis Mechanism

What causes erythroblastosis fetalis?
A) An Rh-positive mother with an Rh-negative fetus
B) An Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive fetus
C) Blood type incompatibility
D) Lack of oxygen in the fetus
E) Maternal diabetes

B) An Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive fetus
Explanation: This condition occurs when an Rh-negative mother produces antibodies against the Rh-positive fetal red blood cells, leading to hemolysis.

p.10
Neural Tube Defects Overview

Why is understanding vesicle development important?
A) It helps in understanding muscle development
B) It is key to grasping the formation of the brain and origins of congenital defects
C) It aids in the development of the digestive system
D) It is crucial for understanding skin regeneration
E) It helps in the formation of the heart

B) It is key to grasping the formation of the brain and origins of congenital defects
Explanation: Understanding how vesicles develop is essential for comprehending not only brain formation but also the origins of various congenital defects, highlighting its significance in developmental biology.

p.6
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What is the role of the neural crest cells?
A) They form the brain's ventricles
B) They give rise to various structures, including parts of the peripheral nervous system
C) They are responsible for the formation of the spinal cord
D) They develop into the cerebral cortex
E) They create the blood-brain barrier

B) They give rise to various structures, including parts of the peripheral nervous system
Explanation: Neural crest cells emerge from the edges of the neural tube and are crucial for developing various structures, including components of the peripheral nervous system.

p.7
AChE inhibitors

What is the primary function of AChE inhibitors in treating myasthenia gravis?
A) Increase the levels of dopamine
B) Decrease acetylcholine levels
C) Increase the levels of acetylcholine at the synapse
D) Block acetylcholine receptors
E) Prevent the release of neurotransmitters

C) Increase the levels of acetylcholine at the synapse
Explanation: AChE inhibitors work by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE), which increases acetylcholine levels at the synapse, compensating for the reduced function of acetylcholine receptors in myasthenia gravis.

p.7
Hypertrophy and VEGF

What do cells release during hypertrophy to promote blood vessel formation?
A) Osteocalcin
B) RANKL
C) VEGF
D) Calcitonin
E) PTH

C) VEGF
Explanation: During hypertrophy, cells release vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) to promote the formation of new blood vessels, which is essential for tissue growth and repair.

p.3
Cilia vs. Microvilli Structure

What is the primary structural difference between cilia and microvilli?
A) Cilia are non-motile, microvilli are motile
B) Cilia contain actin, microvilli contain microtubules
C) Cilia have microtubules, microvilli have actin
D) Cilia are found only in the intestine
E) Microvilli are found only in the respiratory tract

C) Cilia have microtubules, microvilli have actin
Explanation: Cilia are motile structures composed of microtubules, while microvilli are non-motile and contain actin filaments, enhancing surface area for absorption.

p.3
Keratinocyte Functions in Skin

What do keratinocytes secrete?
A) Only collagen
B) Keratin, lamellar granules, and keratohyaline granules
C) Only lipids
D) Only water
E) Only enzymes

B) Keratin, lamellar granules, and keratohyaline granules
Explanation: Keratinocytes produce keratin for structural strength and secrete lamellar granules for waterproofing, along with keratohyaline granules to aid in skin toughness.

p.9
Neural Tube Defects Overview

Which secondary vesicle develops from the prosencephalon?
A) Mesencephalon
B) Myelencephalon
C) Telencephalon
D) Rhombencephalon
E) Metencephalon

C) Telencephalon
Explanation: The prosencephalon divides into the telencephalon and diencephalon, with the telencephalon forming structures such as the cerebral hemispheres and basal ganglia.

p.5
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What happens to a cell once it implants into the uterine wall?
A) It gains totipotency
B) It loses its totipotency and embryonic stem cell status
C) It becomes a neural plate
D) It starts producing blood cells
E) It differentiates into every cell type

B) It loses its totipotency and embryonic stem cell status
Explanation: After implantation into the uterine wall, a cell loses its totipotency and embryonic stem cell status, committing to specific developmental pathways as part of the growing embryo.

p.6
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What does the SAME DAVE mnemonic help remember?
A) Types of brain waves
B) Sensory and motor pathways
C) Stages of neural development
D) Types of neurotransmitters
E) Functions of the cerebellum

B) Sensory and motor pathways
Explanation: The SAME DAVE mnemonic stands for Sensory Afferent, Motor Efferent, Dorsal Afferent, and Ventral Efferent, which helps in remembering the pathways of sensory and motor neurons in relation to the central nervous system.

p.6
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What do metabotropic receptors utilize to relay signals inside the cell?
A) Direct ion flow
B) G-proteins and second messengers
C) Voltage-gated channels
D) Synaptic vesicles
E) Neurotransmitter reuptake

B) G-proteins and second messengers
Explanation: Metabotropic receptors are coupled to G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) and utilize second messengers like cAMP or IP3 to amplify signals inside the cell, resulting in a large intracellular response from a small external signal.

p.7
Bone degradation processes

Which factor inhibits osteoclast activity?
A) RANKL
B) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
C) Calcitonin
D) Osteoprotegerin
E) Vitamin D

C) Calcitonin
Explanation: Calcitonin is a hormone that inhibits osteoclast activity, thereby reducing bone resorption and helping to maintain bone density.

p.4
Mucous Connective Tissue Composition

How are the collagen fibers arranged in dense irregular connective tissue?
A) Parallel
B) Randomly arranged
C) Circular
D) Layered
E) Spiral

B) Randomly arranged
Explanation: In dense irregular connective tissue, the type I and III collagen fibers are arranged irregularly, which provides strength in multiple directions.

p.4
Hematopoiesis Developmental Stages

Which cytokines are primarily responsible for promoting inflammation?
A) IL-2 and IL-6
B) IL-1 and TNFα
C) IL-4 and IL-10
D) TNFβ and IL-12
E) IL-8 and IL-5

B) IL-1 and TNFα
Explanation: IL-1 and TNFα are pro-inflammatory cytokines that play major roles in promoting the inflammatory response and recruiting immune cells.

p.8
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What is Spina Bifida?
A) A defect in the upper neural tube
B) A defect in the lower neural tube
C) A condition where the brain protrudes through the skull
D) A type of brain tumor
E) A condition that affects only the vertebrae

B) A defect in the lower neural tube
Explanation: Spina Bifida is a defect where the caudal (lower) portion of the neural tube does not close properly, leading to malformations of the spinal cord and vertebrae.

p.8
Neural Tube Defects Overview

What is Myelomeningocele?
A) A mild form of spina bifida
B) A condition where the brain protrudes through the skull
C) The most severe form of spina bifida
D) A type of neural tube defect that does not affect the spinal cord
E) A condition that only affects the brain

C) The most severe form of spina bifida
Explanation: Myelomeningocele is the most severe form of spina bifida, where both the spinal cord and meninges protrude through an opening in the spine, potentially causing paralysis and other complications.

p.6
Neural Tube Defects Overview

Where do sensory signals enter the spinal cord?
A) Through the ventral root
B) Through the dorsal root
C) Through the brainstem
D) Through the lateral horn
E) Through the central canal

B) Through the dorsal root
Explanation: Sensory (afferent) signals enter the spinal cord through the dorsal root, while motor (efferent) signals exit through the ventral root, which is crucial for the organization of the spinal cord's function.

p.7
Purkinje cells in the cerebellum and satellite cells in dorsal root ganglia

What is the function of Purkinje cells in the cerebellum?
A) They support neuron cell bodies
B) They are involved in motor coordination
C) They release neurotransmitters
D) They form bone directly
E) They degrade bone matrix

B) They are involved in motor coordination
Explanation: Purkinje cells are large neurons in the cerebellum that play a crucial role in coordinating motor movements.

p.4
Mucous Connective Tissue Composition

What types of collagen fibers are found in loose connective tissue?
A) Type I and II
B) Type I and III
C) Type II and III
D) Type I and IV
E) Type III and V

B) Type I and III
Explanation: Loose connective tissue contains a mix of type I and III collagen fibers along with elastic fibers, providing flexibility and support.

p.3
Hematopoiesis Developmental Stages

What are the primary sites of hematopoiesis during development?
A) Only the liver
B) Yolk sac, liver, spleen, and bone marrow
C) Only the bone marrow
D) Only the spleen
E) Only the yolk sac

B) Yolk sac, liver, spleen, and bone marrow
Explanation: These sites sequentially take over the role of blood cell production during development, with the yolk sac being the earliest and the bone marrow becoming primary by 28 weeks.

p.9
Hematopoiesis Developmental Stages

What does the rhombencephalon develop into?
A) Telencephalon and Diencephalon
B) Mesencephalon
C) Metencephalon and Myelencephalon
D) Cerebral hemispheres
E) Spinal cord

C) Metencephalon and Myelencephalon
Explanation: The rhombencephalon develops into the metencephalon, which forms the pons and cerebellum, and the myelencephalon, which forms the medulla oblongata.

p.9
Epididymis Epithelium Structure

What is the role of the medulla oblongata?
A) Motor coordination
B) Sensory analysis
C) Regulation of heart rate and respiration
D) Eye movement
E) Cognition and sensation

C) Regulation of heart rate and respiration
Explanation: The medulla oblongata, formed from the myelencephalon, regulates essential autonomic functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration.

p.7
SNARE proteins and botulism

What role do SNARE proteins play in neurotransmitter release?
A) They inhibit neurotransmitter release
B) They are involved in vesicle fusion
C) They degrade neurotransmitters
D) They transport neurotransmitters
E) They block receptor sites

B) They are involved in vesicle fusion
Explanation: SNARE proteins are critical for the fusion of vesicles with the presynaptic membrane, facilitating the release of neurotransmitters like acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.

p.3
Mucous Connective Tissue Composition

What type of cells are primarily found in mucous connective tissue?
A) Mesenchymal cells
B) Epithelial cells
C) Fibroblast cells
D) Adipocytes
E) Neurons

C) Fibroblast cells
Explanation: Mucous connective tissue, such as Wharton's jelly, is rich in fibroblasts, which are responsible for producing the extracellular matrix, unlike undifferentiated mesenchymal cells.

p.4
Hematopoiesis Developmental Stages

What is the primary target of antibodies in myasthenia gravis?
A) Myosin
B) Calcium channels
C) Acetylcholine receptors
D) Sodium channels
E) Potassium channels

C) Acetylcholine receptors
Explanation: In myasthenia gravis, antibodies target acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to reduced muscle contraction and weakness.

p.9
Basement Membrane Components

Which structure is formed from the diencephalon?
A) Cerebellum
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Thalamus
D) Pons
E) Basal ganglia

C) Thalamus
Explanation: The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus, with the thalamus serving as a sensory relay center.

p.4
Keratinocyte Functions in Skin

What process do melanocytes use to transfer melanin to keratinocytes?
A) Exocytosis
B) Endocytosis
C) Cytocrine secretion
D) Apocrine secretion
E) Merocrine secretion

C) Cytocrine secretion
Explanation: Melanocytes utilize cytocrine secretion to transfer melanin pigment to neighboring keratinocytes, which helps protect the skin against UV radiation.

p.4
Epididymis Epithelium Structure

What type of epithelium is found in both mammary and apocrine sweat glands?
A) Simple squamous
B) Stratified squamous
C) Simple cuboidal
D) Stratified cuboidal
E) Transitional

C) Simple cuboidal
Explanation: Both the mammary gland and apocrine sweat gland are composed of simple cuboidal epithelium, which is important for their secretory functions.

p.4
Hematopoiesis Developmental Stages

Why can't red blood cells present MHC I molecules?
A) They lack a nucleus
B) They are too small
C) They do not produce proteins
D) They are not involved in immune response
E) They lack mitochondria

A) They lack a nucleus
Explanation: Red blood cells do not present MHC I molecules because they lack a nucleus, which means they do not interact with T cells for immune surveillance.

p.7
Osteoporosis vs. osteopenia

What is the difference between osteopenia and osteoporosis?
A) Osteopenia is more severe than osteoporosis
B) Osteoporosis involves mild bone loss
C) Osteopenia is a normal condition
D) Osteoporosis increases the risk of fractures
E) Osteopenia is characterized by significant decreases in bone density

D) Osteoporosis increases the risk of fractures
Explanation: Osteoporosis is a more severe condition than osteopenia, characterized by significant decreases in bone density and quality, leading to an increased risk of fractures.

p.3
Epididymis Epithelium Structure

What type of epithelium lines the epididymis?
A) Simple squamous
B) Stratified cuboidal
C) Pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia
D) Transitional
E) Simple columnar

C) Pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia
Explanation: The epididymis is lined with this type of epithelium, which aids in sperm maturation and transport due to the presence of stereocilia.

p.3
Blood Transfusion Reactions

What happens during an acute hemolytic reaction?
A) Increased blood pressure
B) Destruction of erythrocytes
C) Formation of new blood cells
D) Decreased heart rate
E) Increased oxygen levels

B) Destruction of erythrocytes
Explanation: An acute hemolytic reaction occurs when incompatible blood is transfused, leading to the immune system attacking and destroying the transfused red blood cells.

p.4
Hematopoiesis Developmental Stages

What is the function of medullary cords in lymph nodes?
A) Filtration of lymph
B) Production of antibodies by plasma cells
C) Storage of lymphocytes
D) Activation of T cells
E) Secretion of cytokines

B) Production of antibodies by plasma cells
Explanation: Medullary cords in lymph nodes contain plasma cells that secrete antibodies, playing a crucial role in the immune response.

Study Smarter, Not Harder
Study Smarter, Not Harder