What is the common causative agent of gonococcal arthritis in sexually active women?
Gonococcus.
What is Pseudogout also known as?
Chondrocalcinosis, which involves CPPD deposition.
1/100
p.6
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the common causative agent of gonococcal arthritis in sexually active women?

Gonococcus.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is Pseudogout also known as?

Chondrocalcinosis, which involves CPPD deposition.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is a common benign tumor of fat?

Lipoma, which is the most common soft tissue tumor in adults.

p.6
Soft Tissue Tumors

What are the common viral agents that can cause viral arthritis?

Parvovirus B19, Rubella, EBV, Hepatitis B and C.

p.3
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the primary characteristic of osteoarthritis?

Degeneration of cartilage leading to structural and functional failure of synovial joints.

p.2
Ewing Sarcoma

What indicates a greater degree of neuroectodermal differentiation in tumors?

The presence of Home-Wright Rosettes.

p.2
Giant Cell Tumor

What is the typical age range for individuals affected by Giant Cell Tumors?

20s to 40s.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What hereditary condition is associated with multiple osteochondromas?

Multiple hereditary exostosis syndrome, an autosomal dominant disease.

p.9
Metastatic Bone Tumors

What is the significance of Page 17 of 17?

It indicates the last page of a document or report.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What are the four clinical stages of gout?

Asymptomatic Hyperuricemia, Acute Arthritis, Asymptomatic Intercritical Period, and Chronic Tophaceous Gout.

p.6
Soft Tissue Tumors

What triggers the inflammation in gout?

Crystallization of monosodium urate (MSU) within and around the joints.

p.3
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the composition of hyaline cartilage?

70% water, 10% Type II collagen, 8% proteoglycans, and chondrocytes.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What symptoms may indicate the onset of rheumatoid arthritis?

Malaise, fatigue, and generalized pain.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is a characteristic feature of proliferating cells in these tumors?

They lack hallmarks of cancer.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the typical size and morphology of fibromatoses?

<5 cm, circumscribed, slightly infiltrative with richly cellular fibroblasts.

p.2
Aneurysmal Bone Cyst

What is the common clinical presentation of Aneurysmal Bone Cysts?

Pain and swelling.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What type of cartilage is found in the cap of an osteochondroma?

Benign hyaline cartilage.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

What is chondrosarcoma?

A malignant tumor that produces cartilage.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

What is the prognosis for grade 1 conventional chondrosarcoma?

80-90% 5-year survival rate.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What characterizes Chronic Tophaceous Arthritis?

It evolves from repetitive precipitation of monosodium urate (MSU) and leads to hyperplastic, fibrotic synovium and cartilage destruction.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What are the histological types of Liposarcoma?

Well-differentiated, Myxoid, and Pleomorphic.

p.2
Ewing Sarcoma

What is the primary characteristic of tumors that arise in the medullary cavity?

They invade the cortex, periosteum, and soft tissue, frequently exhibiting hemorrhage and necrosis.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the clinical manifestations of leukocytoclastic vasculitis?

Purpura, cutaneous ulcers, and nail bed infarction.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What is the most common benign bone tumor?

Osteochondroma, with 85% being solitary.

p.2
Aneurysmal Bone Cyst

What characterizes an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC)?

It has multiloculated blood-filled cystic spaces.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What is the pathogenesis associated with hereditary osteochondroma?

Germline loss of function in EXT1 or EXT2 genes.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is a key histological feature of Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma?

Soft gray, infiltrative mass with sheets of primitive round and spindle-shaped cells.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the histologic hallmark of Synovial Sarcoma?

Dual line of differentiation of tumor cells.

p.1
Ewing Sarcoma

What is the average age of patients with Ewing Sarcoma?

Younger than 20 years old.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the primary cause of crystal formation in gout?

Degradation of articular cartilage proteoglycans allowing crystallization around chondrocytes.

p.3
Fibrous Dysplasia

What is Mazabraud Syndrome?

A condition with skeletal features of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and intramuscular myxomas in adults.

p.6
Soft Tissue Tumors

What are the two types of crystal-induced arthritis?

Endogenous (gout, pseudogout) and exogenous (steroid ester crystals, talcum).

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What happens to collagen type II fibers in rheumatoid arthritis?

They are cleaved, yielding fissures and clefts.

p.3
Fibrous Dysplasia

What is the difference between Monostotic and Polyostotic Fibrous Dysplasia?

Monostotic occurs in one bone and stops enlarging at growth plate closure, while Polyostotic occurs in multiple bones and typically at an earlier age.

p.3
Metastatic Bone Tumors

What are the common routes for metastatic tumors to spread?

Direct extension, lymphatic or hematogenous spread, and intraspinal seeding.

p.6
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is necessary for the development of gout?

Hyperuricemia (plasma levels above 6.8 mg/dl).

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the relationship between HLA-DRB1 alleles and rheumatoid arthritis?

50% of the risk of developing RA is related to these alleles.

p.2
Giant Cell Tumor

What is the primary pathogenesis of Giant Cell Tumors?

Neoplastic cells are primitive osteoblast precursors, with the bulk being non-neoplastic osteoclasts.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

Where do fibromatoses typically arise?

In the deep dermis, subcutis, or muscle.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is Dupuytren Contracture?

Irregular, nodular thickening of palmar fascia causing flexion contracture.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What are the three types of Rhabdomyosarcoma?

Alveolar, Embryonal, and Pleomorphic.

p.6
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the main causative agent of arthritis in children under 2 years old?

H. influenza.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are 'joint mice' in the context of joint diseases?

Dislodged pieces of cartilage that tumble into the joint.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the most common sarcoma in adulthood?

Liposarcoma, typically occurring in individuals aged 40-60.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What role do CD4+ T cells play in rheumatoid arthritis?

They initiate the immune response and produce inflammatory cytokines.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are rheumatoid subcutaneous nodules?

Firm, non-tender nodules that occur in 25% of individuals with RA.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is a common radiologic finding in rheumatoid arthritis?

Joint effusion and juxta-articular osteopenia with erosions.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

How do osteochondromas typically present in childhood?

Multiple osteochondromas become apparent during childhood.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is a common characteristic of deep fibromatosis?

Large, infiltrative masses that recur but do not metastasize.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

What is the clinical course of symptomatic osteochondromas?

They are cured by simple excision.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

At what age do most patients present with chondrosarcoma?

In their 40s or older.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the hallmark feature of gout?

Tophi, which are large aggregations of urate crystals surrounded by an intense inflammatory reaction.

p.3
Fibrous Dysplasia

What are the characteristics of Fibrous Dysplasia?

Well circumscribed, intramedullary lesions that vary in size, tan-white and gritty, composed of woven bone and fibroblastic proliferation.

p.6
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the leading cause of arthropod-borne disease that can lead to arthritis?

Borrelia burgdorferi.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are Heberden nodes?

Prominent osteophytes at the DIP, more common in women.

p.3
Metastatic Bone Tumors

What is the most common form of skeletal malignancy?

Metastatic tumors.

p.6
Soft Tissue Tumors

What are the distinctive morphological changes seen in gout?

Acute arthritis, chronic tophaceous arthritis, tophi in various sites, and gouty nephropathy.

p.2
Giant Cell Tumor

What type of cells dominate in a Giant Cell Tumor?

Multinucleated osteoclast-type giant cells.

p.2
Giant Cell Tumor

Where do Giant Cell Tumors typically arise?

In the epiphysis, mostly around the knee (distal femur, proximal tibia).

p.5
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

What distinguishes Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) from rheumatoid arthritis?

Oligoarthritis is more common, systemic disease is more frequent, and large joints are more affected.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

Which gender is more frequently affected by osteochondromas?

Men, who are affected three times more often than women.

p.5
Psoriatic Arthritis

What is a characteristic feature of Psoriatic Arthritis?

Pencil in a cup deformity.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

What is the most common type of chondrosarcoma?

Conventional chondrosarcoma, which is hyaline cartilage producing.

p.6
Soft Tissue Tumors

Which bacteria is the primary cause of arthritis in older children and adults?

S. aureus.

p.6
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is a common symptom of arthritis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Chronic progressive monoarticular infection.

p.7
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is Nodular Fasciitis?

A self-limited fibroblastic and myofibroblastic proliferation that occurs in young adults, often following trauma.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the significance of TNF in rheumatoid arthritis?

It has been most firmly implicated in the pathogenesis of RA.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are patients with severe erosive disease at risk of developing?

Vasculitis.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which joints are typically affected first in rheumatoid arthritis?

Small joints, generally in a symmetrical pattern.

p.2
Giant Cell Tumor

What is the recurrence rate after curettage for Giant Cell Tumors?

40%-60%.

p.2
Aneurysmal Bone Cyst

What is the typical age group affected by primary Aneurysmal Bone Cysts?

Generally occurs during the first 2 decades of life.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

Where do osteochondromas develop in the bone?

In bones of endochondral origin, near the growth plate of long tubular bones.

p.2
Fibrous Cortical Defects and Non-ossifying Fibroma

What is the morphology of Fibrous Cortical Defects?

Sharply demarcated radiolucencies with a thin rim of sclerosis.

p.5
Infectious Arthritis

How does suppurative arthritis typically occur?

Bacteria enters the joints via hematogenous spread from distant sites.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

What imaging characteristic is associated with chondrosarcoma?

Calcified matrix appears as foci of flocculent densities.

p.1
Ewing Sarcoma

What is Ewing Sarcoma?

A malignant bone tumor characterized by primitive round cells.

p.1
Ewing Sarcoma

What is a common radiological finding in Ewing Sarcoma?

Destructive lytic tumor with permeative margins.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What type of pain is commonly associated with osteoarthritis?

Deep achy pain that worsens with use.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the primary characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?

A chronic inflammatory disorder of autoimmune origin affecting joints.

p.3
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the three phases of osteoarthritis pathogenesis?

1. Chondrocyte injury, 2. Early OA with chondrocyte proliferation, 3. Late OA with marked loss of cartilage.

p.3
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the typical age of onset for osteoarthritis?

Prevalence increases beyond age 50.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What gene fusion is associated with the rapid growth of certain tumors?

MYH9-USP6 fusion gene.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the criteria for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis?

Presence of 4 of the following: morning stiffness, arthritis in 3 or more joints, arthritis of hand joints, symmetric arthritis, rheumatoid nodules, serum RF, typical radio findings.

p.5
Seronegative Spondyloarthropathies

What is a key feature of Seronegative Spondyloarthropathies?

Pathologic changes in the ligamentous attachments and involvement of sacroiliac joints.

p.5
Reactive Arthritis

What triad of symptoms is associated with Reactive Arthritis?

Arthritis, non-gonococcal urethritis or cervicitis, and conjunctivitis.

p.5
Enteritis Associated Arthritis

What infections are associated with Enteritis Associated Arthritis?

Infections by Yersinia, Salmonella, Shigella, and Campylobacter.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the most common location for Leiomyomas?

Uterus.

p.1
Chondrosarcoma

What is the treatment for high-grade chondrosarcoma?

Wide surgical excision and possibly chemotherapy.

p.4
Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is a pannus in the context of rheumatoid arthritis?

A mass of edematous synovium, inflammatory cells, and granulation tissue that erodes articular cartilage.

p.2
Ewing Sarcoma

What is the 5-year survival rate for aggressive malignancies treated with neoadjuvant chemotherapy?

75%.

p.5
Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the characteristic deformities associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

Swan-Neck and Boutonniere deformities.

p.1
Benign Bone Tumors

At what age are solitary osteochondromas typically diagnosed?

Late adolescence and early adulthood.

p.2
Fibrous Cortical Defects and Non-ossifying Fibroma

What is the pathogenesis of Fibrous Cortical Defects?

Common in children, often found in the metaphysis of long bones.

p.2
Fibrous Dysplasia

What mutation is associated with Fibrous Dysplasia?

Somatic gain-of-function mutation in the GNAS1 gene.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is a significant characteristic of Leiomyosarcoma?

Painless, firm masses with eosinophilic spindle cells.

p.5
Ankylosing Spondylitis

What is the primary symptom of Ankylosing Spondylitis?

Low back pain and spinal immobility.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children?

Rhabdomyosarcoma.

p.2
Fibrous Dysplasia

What are the patterns of Fibrous Dysplasia?

Monostotic, polyostotic, Mazabraud Syndrome, and McCune Albright Syndrome.

p.8
Soft Tissue Tumors

What chromosomal translocation is associated with Synovial Sarcoma?

SS18-SSX1,2,4 gene.

p.1
Ewing Sarcoma

What translocation is commonly associated with Ewing Sarcoma?

(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, fusing EWS and FLI1.

Study Smarter, Not Harder
Study Smarter, Not Harder