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What is the target population for the influenza vaccine? A) Only adults over 65 B) Infants and children aged 6 months and older C) Only pregnant women D) Only healthcare workers E) Only individuals with chronic diseases
B) Infants and children aged 6 months and older Explanation: The influenza vaccine is specifically targeted at infants and children aged 6 months and older, along with several priority groups including those with chronic diseases and immunocompromised individuals.
What is the minimum age for administering the Meningococcal vaccine? A) At birth B) 6 months C) 2 years old D) 12 months E) 5 years old
C) 2 years old Explanation: The Meningococcal vaccine can be administered starting at 2 years old, which is specified in the provided content.
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p.12
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the target population for the influenza vaccine?
A) Only adults over 65
B) Infants and children aged 6 months and older
C) Only pregnant women
D) Only healthcare workers
E) Only individuals with chronic diseases

B) Infants and children aged 6 months and older
Explanation: The influenza vaccine is specifically targeted at infants and children aged 6 months and older, along with several priority groups including those with chronic diseases and immunocompromised individuals.

p.9
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the minimum age for administering the Meningococcal vaccine?
A) At birth
B) 6 months
C) 2 years old
D) 12 months
E) 5 years old

C) 2 years old
Explanation: The Meningococcal vaccine can be administered starting at 2 years old, which is specified in the provided content.

p.12
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the minimum age for the first dose of the typhoid vaccine?
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 5 years
E) 9 years

C) 2 years
Explanation: The typhoid vaccine can be administered starting at 2 years old, with a recommended schedule of every 2-3 years thereafter.

p.6
Immunization Principles and Schedules

Which of the following factors does NOT influence the immune response to vaccination?
A) Age
B) Nutritional factors
C) Presence of maternal antibody
D) Weather conditions
E) Route of administration

D) Weather conditions
Explanation: Weather conditions are not listed as a factor influencing the immune response to vaccination. Factors such as age, nutritional status, presence of maternal antibodies, and the route of administration are significant.

p.5
Adolescent Health Care

What is a significant issue when attending to adolescent patients?
A) Lack of medical knowledge
B) Confidentiality
C) Excessive parental involvement
D) Ignoring patient concerns
E) Overemphasis on physical exams

B) Confidentiality
Explanation: Confidentiality is highlighted as a major issue in attending to adolescent patients, indicating the importance of privacy in their healthcare interactions.

p.2
Common Developmental Disorders

What must be present for a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability?
A) High academic performance
B) Deficits in all intellectual functions
C) Advanced social skills
D) Strong adaptive functions
E) Onset of deficits during adulthood

B) Deficits in all intellectual functions
Explanation: For a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability, there must be deficits in all intellectual functions, deficits in adaptive function, and the onset of these deficits during the developmental period.

p.2
Common Developmental Disorders

At what age is Global Developmental Delay typically assessed?
A) Over the age of 10
B) Under the age of 5
C) Between ages 5 and 10
D) At any age
E) Only during adolescence

B) Under the age of 5
Explanation: Global Developmental Delay is typically assessed in children under the age of 5 when the clinical severity level cannot be reliably assessed.

p.1
Phases of Development

Which of the following is NOT a domain of development?
A) Motor
B) Speech and Language
C) Cognitive
D) Emotional
E) Social and Adaptive

D) Emotional
Explanation: The domains of development mentioned include Motor, Speech and Language, Cognitive, and Social and Adaptive, but Emotional is not listed as a separate domain.

p.2
Social and Adaptive Skills

What is the primary focus of social and adaptive skills in child development?
A) Physical growth
B) Cognitive development
C) Promoting all other domains of children's development
D) Language acquisition
E) Motor skills enhancement

C) Promoting all other domains of children's development
Explanation: Social and adaptive skills serve as the foundation for promoting all other domains of children's development, including cognitive, motor, and language skills.

p.5
Adolescent Health Care

Which of the following is NOT recommended as part of a healthy lifestyle for adolescents?
A) Physical activity
B) Balanced diet
C) Avoidance of alcohol
D) Smoking
E) Avoidance of drug use

D) Smoking
Explanation: Smoking is explicitly mentioned as something to avoid in the context of a healthy lifestyle for adolescents, making it clear that it is not recommended.

p.2
Common Developmental Disorders

Which of the following is a sign of Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?
A) Strong focus on tasks
B) Impulsivity
C) Consistent attention
D) High academic performance
E) Excellent organizational skills

B) Impulsivity
Explanation: Impulsivity is one of the key signs of Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD), along with inattention and hyperactivity.

p.9
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is a common adverse reaction to the BCG vaccine?
A) Fever
B) Lymphadenopathy
C) Rash
D) Nausea
E) Diarrhea

B) Lymphadenopathy
Explanation: Lymphadenopathy is listed as one of the common adverse reactions to the BCG vaccine, indicating swelling of the lymph nodes.

p.10
Immunization Principles and Schedules

Which of the following is a causative agent of diphtheria?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Clostridium tetani
C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
E) Polio virus

C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Explanation: Corynebacterium diphtheriae is the specific bacterium responsible for causing diphtheria, making it a key causative agent in immunology.

p.10
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the minimum age for the first dose of the DTaP vaccine?
A) 4 weeks
B) 6 weeks
C) 12 months
D) 2 years
E) 5 years

B) 6 weeks
Explanation: The DTaP vaccine can be administered starting at a minimum age of 6 weeks, which is crucial for early immunization against pertussis.

p.7
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the minimum interval between doses of live parenteral vaccines if not administered simultaneously?
A) 2 weeks
B) 4 weeks
C) 6 weeks
D) 1 month
E) No minimum interval required

B) 4 weeks
Explanation: If two live parenteral vaccines are given less than 4 weeks apart, the second vaccine should be repeated, indicating a minimum interval of 4 weeks is necessary.

p.11
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the disease prevented by the Hepatitis A vaccine?
A) Chickenpox
B) Measles
C) Symptomatic Hepatitis A infection
D) Mumps
E) Rubella

C) Symptomatic Hepatitis A infection
Explanation: The Hepatitis A vaccine is designed to prevent symptomatic Hepatitis A infection, as well as cholestatic and fulminant forms of the disease.

p.4
Phases of Development

What is a characteristic behavior of late adolescents regarding peer relationships?
A) Spending time in solitary activities
B) Joining groups based on beliefs and causes
C) Avoiding relationships altogether
D) Focusing solely on family interactions
E) Preferring same-sex friendships exclusively

B) Joining groups based on beliefs and causes
Explanation: Late Adolescence often involves a return to family and a focus on relationships, with adolescents joining groups that align with their beliefs and causes, reflecting their developing sense of identity.

p.9
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What disease does the Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine primarily prevent?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Tuberculosis (TB)
C) Diphtheria
D) Meningitis
E) Pertussis

B) Tuberculosis (TB)
Explanation: The BCG vaccine is specifically designed to prevent serious forms of tuberculosis in children, including TB meningitis and disseminated TB.

p.6
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is active immunization?
A) Administration of preformed antibodies
B) Stimulation of the immune system through antigens
C) Treatment of diseases with antibiotics
D) Use of antiviral medications
E) None of the above

B) Stimulation of the immune system through antigens
Explanation: Active immunization involves stimulating a person's own immune system through the administration of antigens, which helps produce an immune response similar to natural infection without causing the disease.

p.12
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What type of vaccine is available for typhoid fever?
A) Live attenuated vaccine
B) Inactivated vaccine
C) mRNA vaccine
D) Subunit vaccine
E) Viral vector vaccine

B) Inactivated vaccine
Explanation: The typhoid vaccine available is an inactivated vaccine, specifically the Vi capsular polysaccharide type, which is effective in preventing typhoid fever.

p.6
Classification of Vaccines

What is a characteristic of inactivated vaccines?
A) They require multiple doses for effectiveness
B) They can replicate in the host
C) They are made from live pathogens
D) They provide long-lasting immunity without replication
E) They are always administered orally

D) They provide long-lasting immunity without replication
Explanation: Inactivated vaccines, which include killed whole viruses or bacteria, do not replicate in the host and typically provide long-lasting immunity, although they may require multiple doses.

p.11
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What diseases are prevented by the MMR vaccine?
A) Chickenpox and Hepatitis A
B) Measles, Mumps, and Rubella
C) Gastroenteritis and Diarrhea
D) Exanthems and Varicella
E) Influenza and Pneumonia

B) Measles, Mumps, and Rubella
Explanation: The MMR vaccine is specifically designed to prevent diseases caused by measles, mumps, and rubella viruses.

p.17
Common Developmental Disorders

What is the prevalence of eye problems such as refractive errors in individuals with isolated tetralogy of Fallot?
A) 10 - 20%
B) 35 - 76%
C) 25 - 50%
D) 50 - 80%
E) 5 - 15%

B) 35 - 76%
Explanation: Refractive errors, including myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism, occur in 35 - 76% of individuals with isolated tetralogy of Fallot, indicating a significant prevalence of eye problems in this population.

p.17
Common Developmental Disorders

What gastrointestinal abnormality is most characteristic in cases of Down syndrome?
A) Esophageal atresia
B) Duodenal atresia or stenosis
C) Hirschsprung’s disease
D) Imperforate anus
E) Annular pancreas

B) Duodenal atresia or stenosis
Explanation: Duodenal atresia or stenosis is noted as the most characteristic gastrointestinal lesion associated with Down syndrome, occurring in approximately 5% of cases.

p.1
Motor Skills Development

At what age does a child typically begin to walk alone?
A) 9 months
B) 12 months
C) 15 months
D) 18 months
E) 24 months

B) 12 months
Explanation: According to the motor milestones, a child typically walks alone around 12 months of age, marking a significant achievement in their motor development.

p.16
Common Developmental Disorders

How many chromosomes do humans typically have?
A) 44
B) 46
C) 48
D) 50
E) 42

B) 46
Explanation: Humans typically have 46 chromosomes, which consist of 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (XX in females and XY in males).

p.15
Common Developmental Disorders

What is a malformation syndrome?
A) A single localized defect
B) Multiple defects that cannot be explained by a single initiating defect
C) A condition caused by environmental factors
D) A genetic disorder affecting only one tissue
E) A normal variation in development

B) Multiple defects that cannot be explained by a single initiating defect
Explanation: Malformation syndromes are characterized by multiple defects that arise from a single cause, rather than from a single initiating defect and its consequences.

p.3
Developmental Milestones

At what age do children typically begin to walk independently?
A) 9 months
B) 12 months
C) 15 months
D) 18 months
E) 24 months

B) 12 months
Explanation: Children typically achieve the milestone of walking independently around 12 months of age, marking a significant development in gross motor skills.

p.3
Developmental Milestones

Which fine motor skill is expected at 12 months?
A) Turns pages of a book
B) Initiate stroke on paper
C) Voluntary release; throwing or casting objects
D) Thumb-finger grasp
E) Midline hand play

C) Voluntary release; throwing or casting objects
Explanation: At 12 months, children are expected to demonstrate voluntary release, which includes throwing or casting objects as part of their fine motor development.

p.3
Developmental Milestones

At what age do children typically start to hop?
A) 3 years
B) 4 years
C) 5 years
D) 6 years
E) 7 years

B) 4 years
Explanation: Hopping is a gross motor skill that children typically achieve around 4 years of age, reflecting their increasing physical coordination.

p.9
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the recommended minimum age for the first dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine?
A) 1 month
B) 6 weeks
C) 2 months
D) 12 months
E) 5 years

B) 6 weeks
Explanation: The Hepatitis B vaccine is recommended to be administered at birth, with the first dose given at a minimum age of 6 weeks.

p.12
Immunization Principles and Schedules

Which group is specifically mentioned as needing the meningococcal vaccine?
A) Adults over 50
B) Children aged 9 months and above at risk for invasive disease
C) Only travelers
D) Pregnant women
E) Infants under 6 months

B) Children aged 9 months and above at risk for invasive disease
Explanation: The meningococcal vaccine is recommended for children aged 9 months and above who are at risk for invasive disease, as well as travelers and those going on pilgrimage.

p.8
Vaccine Adverse Reactions

What is the most common type of vaccine adverse reaction?
A) Allergic reaction
B) Systemic adverse reaction
C) Local reaction
D) Severe combined immunodeficiency
E) Encephalopathy

C) Local reaction
Explanation: Local reactions are generally the least severe but most frequent adverse reactions, commonly seen as pain, swelling, and redness at the injection site.

p.8
Vaccine Adverse Reactions

Which of the following is considered a systemic adverse reaction to vaccines?
A) Pain at the injection site
B) Fever
C) Swelling
D) Redness
E) Anaphylaxis

B) Fever
Explanation: Systemic adverse reactions are more generalized events that include symptoms such as fever, malaise, myalgia, headache, and loss of appetite.

p.9
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the target population for the Diphtheria-Pertussis-Tetanus (DPT) vaccine?
A) Newborns only
B) Adults only
C) Infants and children 6 weeks and older
D) Only adolescents
E) Elderly individuals

C) Infants and children 6 weeks and older
Explanation: The DPT vaccine is targeted at infants and children starting from 6 weeks of age, as well as susceptible and unvaccinated children, adolescents, and adults.

p.8
Contraindications and Precautions

Which of the following is NOT considered an invalid contraindication to vaccination?
A) Mild illness
B) Antimicrobial therapy
C) Allergy to products not present in the vaccine
D) Severe allergic reaction
E) Family history of adverse events

D) Severe allergic reaction
Explanation: Severe allergic reactions are valid contraindications, while mild illness, antimicrobial therapy, and other listed conditions are considered invalid contraindications.

p.15
Common Developmental Disorders

Which of the following is an example of dysplasia?
A) Oligohydramnios
B) Amniotic bands
C) Hamartomas
D) Breech position
E) Chromosomal abnormalities

C) Hamartomas
Explanation: Dysplasia refers to the lack of normal organization of cells into tissues, with hamartomas being an example of abnormal tissue organization often associated with tumor-like excess.

p.15
Common Developmental Disorders

What is the recurrence risk for malformation sequences?
A) 0% to 1%
B) 1% to 5%
C) 10% to 15%
D) 20% to 25%
E) 50% or more

B) 1% to 5%
Explanation: Malformation sequences have a recurrence risk ranging from 1% to 5%, indicating a relatively low chance of reoccurrence in subsequent pregnancies.

p.4
Developmental Milestones

What is a common concern for adolescents regarding body image during early adolescence?
A) Lack of interest in appearance
B) Preoccupation with pubertal changes
C) Complete acceptance of their body
D) Focus on athletic performance
E) Interest in fashion trends

B) Preoccupation with pubertal changes
Explanation: Early Adolescence is marked by concerns about body image, particularly a preoccupation with the changes that occur during puberty, as adolescents seek to understand their developing identities.

p.16
Common Developmental Disorders

What is Trisomy?
A) Missing a set of genes
B) An extra set of genes
C) A normal set of genes
D) A rearrangement of genes
E) A deletion of genes

B) An extra set of genes
Explanation: Trisomy refers to the presence of an extra set of genes, which can lead to various genetic disorders, including Down syndrome.

p.10
Immunization Principles and Schedules

Which vaccine is not effective in children under 2 years old?
A) Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine
B) Pneumococcal conjugated vaccine
C) IPV
D) OPV
E) DTaP

A) Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine
Explanation: The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is not effective in children younger than 2 years, making the conjugated vaccine the preferred option for that age group.

p.4
Adolescent Health Care

What is a recommended laboratory test for sexually active females during adolescence?
A) Complete blood count
B) Urinalysis
C) Vaginal wet mount, PAP smear
D) Scoliosis screening
E) Tanner staging

C) Vaginal wet mount, PAP smear
Explanation: For sexually active females, a vaginal wet mount and PAP smear are recommended laboratory tests to monitor reproductive health and screen for potential issues.

p.3
Developmental Milestones

What is a common behavior associated with the 'terrible twos'?
A) Increased cooperation
B) Defiance
C) Enhanced language skills
D) Improved social skills
E) Greater independence

B) Defiance
Explanation: The 'terrible twos' is often characterized by defiant behavior as children assert their independence and test boundaries.

p.6
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the primary purpose of immunization?
A) To treat existing infections
B) To introduce immunity artificially
C) To diagnose diseases
D) To enhance physical fitness
E) To replace medications

B) To introduce immunity artificially
Explanation: Immunization is defined as the process of introducing immunity artificially, either through vaccination (active immunization) or administration of antibodies (passive immunization), making it a crucial preventive health measure.

p.2
Developmental Surveillance and Screening

Which of the following is NOT a component of developmental surveillance and screening?
A) Eliciting parent concerns
B) Maintaining a developmental history
C) Making accurate observations
D) Identifying risk factors
E) Conducting physical examinations

E) Conducting physical examinations
Explanation: The components of developmental surveillance and screening focus on gathering information about the child's development and the parent's concerns, rather than conducting physical examinations.

p.6
Classification of Vaccines

What type of vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine?
A) Killed whole virus or bacteria
B) Weakened form of the wild virus or bacterium
C) Synthetic vaccine
D) Recombinant DNA vaccine
E) Inactivated toxin

B) Weakened form of the wild virus or bacterium
Explanation: Live attenuated vaccines consist of a weakened form of the wild virus or bacterium, which must replicate to be effective and elicits an immune response similar to natural infection.

p.7
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is a characteristic of pure polysaccharide vaccines?
A) They are consistently immunogenic in children under 2 years
B) They produce a strong cellular immune response
C) They require multiple doses to boost antibody titers
D) They have a strong booster response
E) They are only effective in adults

C) They require multiple doses to boost antibody titers
Explanation: Pure polysaccharide vaccines, such as pneumococcal and meningococcal vaccines, require multiple doses and periodic supplemental doses to increase or boost antibody titers, especially since their immunogenicity is not consistent in children younger than 2 years.

p.8
Contraindications and Precautions

What is a contraindication for vaccination?
A) Mild illness
B) Antimicrobial therapy
C) Severe allergic reaction to a vaccine component
D) Breastfeeding
E) Family history of adverse events

C) Severe allergic reaction to a vaccine component
Explanation: A contraindication is a condition that greatly increases the chance of a serious adverse reaction, such as a severe allergic reaction to a vaccine component or following a prior dose.

p.15
Common Developmental Disorders

What is a disruption sequence?
A) A genetic disorder with multiple defects
B) A breakdown of previously normal tissue due to destructive problems
C) A condition caused by environmental factors
D) A localized defect with no further consequences
E) A series of unrelated malformations

B) A breakdown of previously normal tissue due to destructive problems
Explanation: A disruption sequence involves the breakdown of previously normal tissue due to destructive issues, which can be of vascular, infectious, or mechanical origin.

p.7
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the recommended action when administering measles and varicella containing vaccines?
A) Administer the antibody immediately after the vaccine
B) Wait 2 weeks before giving the antibody
C) Wait 1 month before giving the vaccine
D) Administer the vaccine and antibody simultaneously
E) Wait 6 months before giving the antibody

B) Wait 2 weeks before giving the antibody
Explanation: It is recommended to wait 2 weeks after administering measles and varicella containing vaccines before giving the corresponding antibody to ensure proper immune response.

p.17
Common Developmental Disorders

What percentage of individuals with Down syndrome experience hearing loss?
A) 10 - 20%
B) 20 - 30%
C) 38 - 78%
D) 50 - 60%
E) 70 - 80%

C) 38 - 78%
Explanation: Hearing loss affects a significant portion of individuals with Down syndrome, with estimates ranging from 38% to 78%, highlighting the importance of auditory assessments in this population.

p.1
Speech and Language Development

What is the primary focus of speech and language development in children?
A) To enhance physical strength
B) To represent objects and actions symbolically
C) To improve gross motor skills
D) To develop social skills only
E) To memorize facts

B) To represent objects and actions symbolically
Explanation: Speech and language development is crucial as it allows children to represent objects and actions in symbolic form, facilitating communication of ideas, intentions, and emotions.

p.10
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is a common adverse effect associated with pertussis vaccination?
A) Fever
B) Permanent brain damage
C) Rash
D) Nausea
E) Diarrhea

B) Permanent brain damage
Explanation: While adverse effects from vaccinations can vary, permanent brain damage is a serious potential adverse effect associated with pertussis, highlighting the importance of monitoring post-vaccination.

p.16
Common Developmental Disorders

What is a common feature of Down syndrome?
A) Tall stature
B) Hypotonia
C) Hyperactivity
D) Increased muscle tone
E) Normal cognitive function

B) Hypotonia
Explanation: Hypotonia, or decreased muscle tone, is a common feature of Down syndrome, along with other physical and cognitive characteristics.

p.10
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the route of administration for the IPV vaccine?
A) Oral
B) Subcutaneous
C) Intramuscular
D) Intravenous
E) Topical

C) Intramuscular
Explanation: The Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) is administered intramuscularly, specifically in the upper outer portion of the thigh.

p.3
Developmental Milestones

Which cognitive milestone is expected at 3 years of age?
A) Dress independently
B) Do simple errands
C) Dress under supervision
D) Follow 3-step commands
E) Help in household chores

C) Dress under supervision
Explanation: At 3 years, children typically can dress under supervision, showcasing their developing cognitive and motor skills.

p.12
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What diseases does the HPV vaccine protect against?
A) Influenza and pneumonia
B) Cervical, vaginal, vulvar, anal, penile cancers, and genital warts
C) Typhoid fever and its complications
D) Meningococcal disease
E) Hepatitis A and B

B) Cervical, vaginal, vulvar, anal, penile cancers, and genital warts
Explanation: The HPV vaccine protects against infections that can lead to various cancers and genital warts, specifically targeting types 6, 11, 16, and 18.

p.9
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the route of administration for the BCG vaccine in infants?
A) Oral
B) Intravenous
C) Intradermal
D) Subcutaneous
E) Intramuscular

C) Intradermal
Explanation: The BCG vaccine is administered intradermally (ID) in the right deltoid region of the arm for infants.

p.5
Adolescent Health Care

What is a recommended practice for injury and accident prevention in adolescents?
A) Use of protective gear
B) Driving under the influence
C) Smoking in bed
D) Ignoring seat belts
E) Avoiding safety measures

A) Use of protective gear
Explanation: The use of protective gear, such as seat belts, is emphasized as a crucial practice for preventing injuries and accidents among adolescents.

p.15
Common Developmental Disorders

What is a malformation sequence?
A) A single localized poor formation of tissue that initiates a chain of subsequent defects
B) A series of unrelated defects in different tissues
C) A normal tissue structure with no defects
D) A genetic disorder affecting multiple systems
E) A condition caused by environmental factors

A) A single localized poor formation of tissue that initiates a chain of subsequent defects
Explanation: A malformation sequence is characterized by a single localized defect that leads to a series of subsequent defects, with a recurrence risk of 1% to 5%.

p.15
Common Developmental Disorders

What characterizes a deformation sequence?
A) It originates from a genetic mutation
B) It results from mechanical forces altering normal tissue
C) It is caused by chromosomal abnormalities
D) It involves a breakdown of previously normal tissue
E) It is a result of environmental teratogens

B) It results from mechanical forces altering normal tissue
Explanation: A deformation sequence occurs when mechanical forces, such as oligohydramnios or breech position, alter the morphogenesis of normal tissue without any initial problem in the embryo or fetus.

p.11
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the recommended age for the first dose of the Rotavirus vaccine?
A) 6 weeks
B) 9 months
C) 12 months
D) 18 months
E) 24 months

A) 6 weeks
Explanation: The Rotavirus vaccine is recommended for all infants starting at 6 weeks old until 32 weeks.

p.11
Immunization Principles and Schedules

Which of the following is a contraindication for the MMR vaccine?
A) Healthy children aged 12 months
B) Pregnant women
C) Infants aged 6 weeks
D) Adults with a history of chickenpox
E) Children with a cold

B) Pregnant women
Explanation: Pregnant women are contraindicated from receiving the MMR vaccine, and pregnancy should be avoided for 4 weeks after vaccination.

p.4
Phases of Development

During which stage of adolescence is there a peak in parental conflicts?
A) Early Adolescence
B) Middle Adolescence
C) Late Adolescence
D) Pre-Adolescence
E) Childhood

B) Middle Adolescence
Explanation: Middle Adolescence is characterized by a peak in parental conflicts as adolescents strive for autonomy and independence, leading to increased tensions with parents.

p.10
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What disease does the pneumococcal vaccine primarily prevent?
A) Diphtheria
B) Pertussis
C) Invasive pneumococcal disease
D) Poliomyelitis
E) Tuberculosis

C) Invasive pneumococcal disease
Explanation: The pneumococcal vaccine is designed to prevent invasive pneumococcal diseases such as bacteremia and meningitis, which are serious infections caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.

p.7
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What happens if the interval between doses of a multi-dose vaccine is increased?
A) It diminishes the effectiveness of the vaccine
B) It has no effect on the vaccine's effectiveness
C) It requires restarting the vaccine series
D) It interferes with antibody response
E) It increases the risk of side effects

B) It has no effect on the vaccine's effectiveness
Explanation: Increasing the interval between doses of a multi-dose vaccine does not diminish the effectiveness of the vaccine, allowing for flexibility in scheduling.

p.7
Immunization Principles and Schedules

Which of the following vaccines is administered intramuscularly (IM)?
A) Rotavirus
B) Polio (OPV)
C) Measles
D) DTaP
E) BCG

D) DTaP
Explanation: DTaP (Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Pertussis) is administered intramuscularly (IM), while other vaccines listed have different routes of administration.

p.16
Common Developmental Disorders

What is the term for the condition where a chromosome breaks and leads to loss or gain of genetic information?
A) Trisomy
B) Monosomy
C) Chromosomal breakage and rearrangement
D) Isochromosome formation
E) Mosaicism

C) Chromosomal breakage and rearrangement
Explanation: Chromosomal breakage and rearrangement can result in the loss or gain of genetic information, leading to various genetic abnormalities.

p.16
Common Developmental Disorders

What percentage of individuals with Down syndrome have congenital heart disease?
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 90%

C) 50%
Explanation: Approximately 50% of individuals with Down syndrome have congenital heart disease, which can include various types of heart defects.

p.5
Adolescent Health Care

What is a key component of anticipatory guidance for adolescent health?
A) Avoidance of physical activity
B) Self-breast examination for females
C) Increased alcohol consumption
D) Ignoring sexual behavior
E) No need for protective gear

B) Self-breast examination for females
Explanation: Self-breast examination is highlighted as an important aspect of anticipatory guidance for females, emphasizing the importance of health awareness and preventive measures in adolescent health care.

p.2
Common Developmental Disorders

What is a common characteristic of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?
A) High levels of physical activity
B) Strong social connections
C) Limited conversation
D) Advanced mathematical skills
E) Excellent eye contact

C) Limited conversation
Explanation: A common characteristic of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) includes language impairment, which often manifests as limited conversation and other communication challenges.

p.11
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the minimum age for the first dose of the Measles vaccine?
A) 6 months
B) 9 months
C) 12 months
D) 18 months
E) 24 months

B) 9 months
Explanation: The minimum age for the first dose of the Measles vaccine is 9 months, and it may be given as early as 6 months in case of outbreaks.

p.5
Adolescent Health Care

In the context of adolescent health counseling, who is increasingly being directed to receive guidance?
A) Parents/guardians
B) The community
C) The patient
D) School teachers
E) Health insurance providers

C) The patient
Explanation: Guidance and counseling are increasingly directed to the patient themselves, with diminishing participation from parents or guardians, reflecting a shift towards empowering adolescents in their own health decisions.

p.1
Developmental Milestones

What is a key characteristic of developmental milestones?
A) They are random and unpredictable
B) They occur in a cephalocaudal manner
C) They only focus on cognitive skills
D) They are not observable
E) They are only relevant in adolescence

B) They occur in a cephalocaudal manner
Explanation: Developmental milestones are characterized by their orderly and predictable progression, often following a cephalocaudal pattern, meaning development occurs from head to toe.

p.4
Developmental Milestones

What is a key focus of childcare for children aged 6-10 years?
A) Limit TV/internet exposure
B) Encourage excessive screen time
C) Promote isolation from peers
D) Discourage active play
E) Avoid reading activities

A) Limit TV/internet exposure
Explanation: The text emphasizes the importance of limiting TV and internet exposure as part of childcare strategies for children aged 6-10 years, promoting healthier habits and active engagement.

p.10
Immunization Principles and Schedules

Which vaccine is recommended for children under 7 years old?
A) DTwP
B) Tdap
C) dT
D) IPV
E) OPV

A) DTwP
Explanation: The DTwP vaccine, which contains whole cell pertussis, is specifically formulated for pediatric use in children under 7 years old.

p.8
General Recommendation on Vaccine and Schedule

At what age is the first dose of the measles vaccine typically administered?
A) At birth
B) 6 weeks
C) 9 months
D) 12 months
E) 2 years

C) 9 months
Explanation: The measles vaccine is typically administered at 9 months of age as part of the vaccination schedule.

p.3
Developmental Milestones

What is the first gross motor milestone typically achieved in the first year of life?
A) Walks independently
B) Pull to stand
C) Roll over
D) Hold head
E) Sitting

D) Hold head
Explanation: The first gross motor milestone typically achieved in the first year of life is holding the head up, which usually occurs around 3 months of age.

p.17
Common Developmental Disorders

What is the most common etiology of Down syndrome?
A) Translocation cases
B) 21 Trisomy/normal mosaicism
C) Full 21 Trisomy
D) Environmental factors
E) Maternal infections

C) Full 21 Trisomy
Explanation: Full 21 Trisomy accounts for 94% of Down syndrome cases, making it the most common etiology associated with the condition.

p.17
Growth and Development

What is a common growth characteristic in children with Down syndrome?
A) Rapid growth
B) Normal adolescent sexual development
C) Relatively slow growth
D) Increased height
E) Early sexual maturity

C) Relatively slow growth
Explanation: Children with Down syndrome typically exhibit relatively slow growth, which can affect their overall development and health outcomes.

p.10
Immunization Principles and Schedules

Which of the following is a contraindication for vaccination?
A) Mild cold
B) Anaphylactic reaction to neomycin
C) Recent travel
D) Family history of allergies
E) Previous vaccination

B) Anaphylactic reaction to neomycin
Explanation: Individuals who have experienced an anaphylactic reaction to streptomycin, polymyxin B, or neomycin should not receive certain vaccines due to the risk of severe allergic reactions.

p.8
Site and Route of Administration

What is the preferred site for vaccine administration in infants?
A) Upper outer aspect of the buttocks
B) Deltoid muscle of the upper arm
C) Anterolateral aspect of the upper thigh
D) Subcutaneous fat in the gluteal region
E) Abdomen

C) Anterolateral aspect of the upper thigh
Explanation: The preferred site for vaccine administration in infants is the anterolateral aspect of the upper thigh, as it minimizes the risk of complications.

p.11
Immunization Principles and Schedules

What is the target population for the Varicella vaccine?
A) Children aged 6 weeks
B) Children aged 9 months
C) Children aged 12 months and adults with no previous history of infection
D) Adults aged 18 years and older
E) Infants under 6 months

C) Children aged 12 months and adults with no previous history of infection
Explanation: The Varicella vaccine is targeted at children aged 12 months and healthy adults who have no previous history of chickenpox infection.

p.17
Common Developmental Disorders

Which of the following is a principal feature in neonates with Down syndrome?
A) Hyperactivity
B) Hypotonia
C) Increased muscle tone
D) Normal Moro reflex
E) Decreased flexibility of joints

B) Hypotonia
Explanation: Hypotonia is a principal feature observed in 80% of neonates with Down syndrome, indicating reduced muscle tone, which is a common characteristic of the condition.

p.1
Speech and Language Development

Which milestone indicates a child can follow 1-step commands with a gesture?
A) 6 months
B) 12 months
C) 18 months
D) 24 months
E) 30 months

B) 12 months
Explanation: At 12 months, children typically reach the milestone of following 1-step commands with a gesture, indicating their developing receptive language skills.

p.1
Motor Skills Development

What is the significance of motor evaluation in child development?
A) It is irrelevant to overall development
B) It only assesses cognitive skills
C) It enhances understanding of primitive reflexes and postural reactions
D) It focuses solely on large muscle control
E) It is only conducted in preschool years

C) It enhances understanding of primitive reflexes and postural reactions
Explanation: Motor evaluation is significant as it includes a neurodevelopmental assessment that enhances understanding of primitive reflexes and postural reactions, providing insights into a child's motor development.

p.3
Developmental Milestones

What is a common language milestone for a 24-month-old child?
A) Speaks first real word
B) Follows two-step commands
C) Speaks 10-15 words
D) Speaks 4-6 words
E) Two-word phrases

E) Two-word phrases
Explanation: By 24 months, children typically begin to use two-word phrases, indicating a significant advancement in their language development.

p.3
Developmental Milestones

At what age do children typically begin to skip?
A) 3 years
B) 4 years
C) 5 years
D) 6 years
E) 7 years

C) 5 years
Explanation: Skipping is a gross motor skill that children usually master around 5 years of age, indicating advanced coordination and balance.

p.4
Adolescent Health Care

What does the HEEADSS assessment tool focus on for patients over 10 years old?
A) Home, Education, Eating, Activities, Drugs, Sexuality, Safety
B) Health, Exercise, Eating, Activities, Drugs, Safety
C) Home, Education, Employment, Activities, Drugs, Sexuality, Safety
D) Health, Education, Eating, Activities, Drugs, Sexuality, Safety
E) Home, Education, Eating, Activities, Drugs, Sexuality, Support

A) Home, Education, Eating, Activities, Drugs, Sexuality, Safety
Explanation: The HEEADSS assessment tool is designed to evaluate various aspects of an adolescent's life, including home environment, education, eating habits, activities, substance use, sexuality, and safety concerns.

p.16
Common Developmental Disorders

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of individuals with Down syndrome?
A) Long neck
B) Slanted palpebral fissures
C) Large ears
D) High muscle tone
E) Normal facial structure

B) Slanted palpebral fissures
Explanation: Slanted palpebral fissures are one of the characteristic features of individuals with Down syndrome, along with other distinct physical traits.

Study Smarter, Not Harder
Study Smarter, Not Harder