What is Polycythemia Vera characterized by?
Increased hemoglobin levels and panmyelosis.
What is a characteristic of Lymphoproliferative Anemia?
It is a space-occupying lesion in the bone marrow.
1/433
p.51
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What is Polycythemia Vera characterized by?

Increased hemoglobin levels and panmyelosis.

p.12
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What is a characteristic of Lymphoproliferative Anemia?

It is a space-occupying lesion in the bone marrow.

p.5
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the characteristic appearance of the skull in conditions like thalassemia and sickle cell anemia?

Crew cut appearance.

p.8
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does 'He' represent in the mnemonic?

HbH.

p.5
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does maxillary prominence indicate in patients with thalassemia?

Erythropoiesis occurring in bones.

p.1
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Techniques

What is the mnemonic for remembering the order of hemoglobin bands?

IIAFSA2.

p.23
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What causes the formation of Dohle bodies?

Dilated endoplasmic reticulum organelles.

p.40
Hodgkin's Lymphoma Types and Genetics

What is the size of the 'Owl Eye' appearance in Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

45 microns in size.

p.14
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What condition involves platelets along with fragmented cells?

Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia (MAHA).

p.2
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Techniques

What does the graph show regarding hemoglobin?

Different peaks for different types of hemoglobin based on elution time.

p.5
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is another name for the crew cut appearance of the skull?

Hair-on-end appearance.

p.42
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the predominant cell type in Nodular Lymphocyte Predominant Hodgkin's Lymphoma (NLPHL)?

L&H Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells.

p.27
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 14-year-old boy with mediastinal mass and positive TdT, CD2, and CD7?

T-ALL.

p.16
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

In which disorders is Rouleaux formation commonly seen?

WBC disorders and multiple myeloma.

p.50
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 60-year-old male with fatigue, massive splenomegaly, and no lymphadenopathy?

Hairy Cell Leukemia

p.38
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does LAP stand for in the context of neutrophils?

Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase.

p.18
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is the significance of the number 528?

It is often associated with the frequency of 528 Hz, which is believed by some to promote healing and transformation.

p.16
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is a characteristic change in HbC disease?

Glutamic acid changes to lysine.

p.13
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is a characteristic of pencil cells?

They are smaller than normal RBCs and have no central pallor.

p.49
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the characteristic gene affected in Anaplastic Large T-Cell Lymphoma?

ALK gene.

p.27
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does OIL RED O positivity indicate in ALL L3?

Cytoplasmic vacuolations containing fat.

p.8
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does 'Boy' represent in the mnemonic?

β4 tetramers.

p.51
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What chromosome translocation is associated with Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?

t(9:22), known as the Philadelphia chromosome.

p.49
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of lymphoma is associated with Reed-Sternberg cells?

Hodgkin's Lymphoma.

p.33
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What mutation is associated with Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?

Bruton Tyrosine Kinase Mutation.

p.22
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What is referred to as pseudo-Pelger-Huët anomaly?

Hyposegmented neutrophils present supplementary to other syndromes like Myelodysplastic syndrome.

p.20
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is a myeloblast?

A type of immature blood cell that develops into myeloid cells.

p.13
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What are pencil cells?

Abnormal red blood cells seen in Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA).

p.15
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is Abelalipoproteinemia associated with?

Echlnpcytes and Burr cells.

p.47
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a clinical feature of Hairy Cell Leukemia?

Massive splenomegaly.

p.2
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What are the chains that make up adult hemoglobin?

Alpha (α) and beta (β) chains.

p.20
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is a monoblast?

An immature cell that develops into monocytes.

p.50
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which of the following is not seen in Burkitt's Lymphoma?

t(8:14)

p.12
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What can a space-occupying lesion in the bone marrow lead to?

The removal of RBCs and WBCs from the bone marrow.

p.49
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the two types of cells observed microscopically in Anaplastic Large T-Cell Lymphoma?

Doughnut cells and Hdlmaik cells (Kidney-shaped cells).

p.23
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What are Dohle bodies associated with?

Severe sepsis in patients.

p.31
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the significance of PAS positivity in AML subtypes?

Indicates the presence of certain types of myeloblasts in AMLM6 and AMLM7.

p.6
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

How can Thalassemia Minor be confused with another condition?

It can be confused with iron deficiency anemia.

p.8
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What type of cells indicate golfball inclusions?

Blue ball-like cells.

p.16
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What are Pincer cells?

A type of abnormal red blood cell morphology.

p.8
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the mnemonic for remembering HbH disease characteristics?

He is a Boy playing Golf at 3 AM.

p.12
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What is a leukocyte-erythroblastic blood picture?

It includes WBC precursors and RBC precursors.

p.15
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What is agglutination of RBCs seen in?

Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) due to gold agglutinin disease.

p.8
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What causes the golfball inclusions in cells?

Due to β4 tetramers.

p.13
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What is the most common cause of pencil cells?

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA).

p.15
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What types of cells are coñocytes and target cells associated with?

Thalassemia, Sickle Cell Anemia (SCA), HbC disease, and HbE disease.

p.13
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What are degmacytes?

Abnormal red blood cells associated with G6PD deficiency.

p.22
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What condition is associated with hypersegmented neutrophils?

Megaloblastic anemia.

p.15
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What type of antibodies are found in agglutination of RBCs?

IgM antibodies.

p.10
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What is the special name for the IgG antibody in IgG Cold AIHA?

Donath-Landsteiner antibody.

p.23
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What is a characteristic feature of Dohle bodies?

Large cytoplasmic granules.

p.4
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the effect of ineffective erythropoiesis on the bone marrow?

It increases the load on the bone marrow, causing erythroid hyperplasia.

p.6
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the HbA2 level in Thalassemia Minor?

Less than 3.5%.

p.4
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does fetal hemoglobin (HbF) combine with in Thalassemia Major?

Alpha chains.

p.16
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What is Rouleaux formation?

A stacking of red blood cells that is not seen in RBC disorders.

p.8
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

In which condition are golfball inclusions seen?

In HbH disease.

p.2
Sickle Cell Anemia Treatment

What is the effect of Hydroxyurea in the treatment of Sickle Cell Anemia?

It increases the level of fetal hemoglobin, thereby increasing oxygen affinity.

p.22
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What is a characteristic of hypersegmented neutrophils?

Nuclear lobes equal to or more than 5.

p.19
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What does CFU G/M stand for?

Colony Forming Unit Granulocyte/Monocyte.

p.4
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the genetic cause of Thalassemia Major mentioned in the text?

619 base pair deletion.

p.27
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the symptoms of the 5-year-old boy with acute lymphoblastic leukemia?

Loss of appetite, fatigue, irritability, low-grade fever, bone pain, pallor, splenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy.

p.53
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is a characteristic finding in primary myelofibrosis when using reticulin stains?

Black fibers appear.

p.10
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What condition is also known as Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria?

IgG Cold AIHA.

p.35
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the result of the fusion of BCR and ABL?

Increased Tyrosine kinase activity, known as CML.

p.42
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does Stage II of Hodgkin's Lymphoma indicate?

At least two groups/regions affected on the same side of the diaphragm.

p.30
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of agents are used in AML therapy?

Alkylating agents.

p.31
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the clinical presentation of a 15-year-old boy with acute myeloblastic leukemia?

Bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleeding, and purpuric rash.

p.17
Hypoproliferative Anemias

In which type of anemia are Howell-Jolly bodies seen?

Megaloblastic anemia.

p.11
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is a common finding in a bone marrow aspirate of Aplastic Anemia?

Dry tap (as there are no cells).

p.32
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the diagnostic criteria for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia?

1. Absolute lymphocyte count ≥ 5000/mm³, 2. Lymphocyte count > 30% in bone marrow, 3. CD 5+ and CD 23+ dual positivity.

p.34
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What pattern do lymphoma cells adopt despite not conforming to a typical follicle pattern?

Pseudofollicular pattern.

p.53
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What chromosomal abnormality is commonly associated with elderly adults in MDS?

Deletion of chromosome 5 (del5q).

p.14
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What are fragmented cells associated with?

Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia (MAHA), specifically HUS and TTP.

p.20
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is the main difference between myeloblast, lymphoblast, and monoblast?

They develop into different types of blood cells: myeloblasts into myeloid cells, lymphoblasts into lymphocytes, and monoblasts into monocytes.

p.15
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

In which conditions are echlnpcytes and burr cells seen?

In burns, uremia, and prolonged exposure to RDTA.

p.6
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What type of anemia is Thalassemia Minor?

Microcytic hypochromic anemia.

p.38
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What conditions can cause an increased LAP score?

Leukemoid reaction, pregnancy, oral contraceptive use, neutrophilia/sepsis, Down's syndrome.

p.10
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What type of AIHA undergoes Intravascular Hemolysis (IVH)?

Only IgG Cold AIHA.

p.8
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does 'Golf' represent in the mnemonic?

Golfball inclusion.

p.42
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a better predictor of prognosis in Hodgkin's Lymphoma, staging or histological grade?

Staging is a greater predictor of prognosis than histological grade.

p.6
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the Mentzer index used for?

To differentiate between iron deficiency anemia and Thalassemia.

p.38
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does a left shift in granulocytes indicate?

An increase in immature neutrophils, often seen in acute infections.

p.54
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is the classification of MDS with single lineage dysplasia?

Less than 5% blasts present in any one of RBC, WBC, or platelets.

p.53
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is a common physical finding in patients with primary myelofibrosis?

Splenomegaly.

p.54
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What characterizes MDS with multi-lineage dysplasia?

Less than 5% blasts present in two or more than two lineages.

p.4
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the consequence of increased HbF in Thalassemia Major?

Less oxygen reaches the tissues, stimulating the release of erythropoietin.

p.6
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does the Naked Eye Single Tube RBC Osmotic Fragility Test involve?

Comparing the fragility of the patient's blood with normal blood in a hypotonic solution.

p.51
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What is the major criterion for Essential Thrombocythemia?

Platelet count greater than 4.5 lakhs/min.

p.6
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What happens to normal RBCs in a hypotonic saline solution?

They break, making a black line visible behind the tube.

p.14
Sickle Cell Anemia Treatment

What are sickle cells associated with?

Sickle cell anemia.

p.5
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the term for erythropoiesis occurring in organs other than the bone marrow?

Extrabone marrow hematopoiesis.

p.27
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a good prognostic factor for female patients with B-ALL aged 2-10 years?

Hyperdiploidy with trisomies -4, -7, and -10.

p.47
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which part of the spleen is affected in Hairy Cell Leukemia?

Red pulp.

p.6
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is a key feature of Thalassemia Minor?

It is asymptomatic.

p.24
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the primary difference between leukemia and lymphomas?

Leukemia is blood cancer, while lymphomas are cancers of the lymph nodes.

p.19
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What types of cells are included in granulocytes?

Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils.

p.4
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What happens when there are no beta chains available in Thalassemia Major?

Alpha chains form tetramers, leading to ineffective erythropoiesis.

p.31
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the provisional category for AML with RUNX1 mutation?

AML with blasts greater than 20%.

p.30
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What mutation is associated with AML therapy?

CEBPA mutation.

p.40
Hodgkin's Lymphoma Types and Genetics

What markers are associated with Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

CD 15, CD 30 (most sensitive), and PAX 5 (most specific for B cell origin tumor).

p.24
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the blast cell percentage for acute leukemia?

Greater than 20%.

p.11
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is the investigation of choice for Aplastic Anemia?

Bone marrow biopsy.

p.32
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the clinical features of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia?

Fatigue, lymphadenopathy (LAP), and hepatosplenomegaly (HSM).

p.52
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What are the minor criteria for diagnosing myelofibrosis?

Rule out reactive thrombocytosis (e.g., infection, iron deficiency anemia).

p.4
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What happens to RBC counts and hemoglobin levels in Thalassemia Major?

RBC increases but hemoglobin decreases.

p.52
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What clinical feature is characterized by burning and throbbing sensations in hands and feet?

Erythromelalgia.

p.1
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Techniques

What happens if hemoglobin moves slower and stays at the cathode end?

HbS (sickle cell anemia).

p.54
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is the age group commonly associated with MDS?

Elderly.

p.26
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is hyperdiploidy in the context of leukemia?

It refers to having more than two sets of chromosomes, often seen with trisomies such as 4, 7, and 10.

p.54
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is the classification for refractory cytopenia of childhood?

Monosomy 7.

p.33
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the relationship between CLL and lymph nodes?

CLL can spread from blood into lymph nodes.

p.19
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What do monoblasts develop into?

Monocytes.

p.20
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is a lymphoblast?

An immature lymphocyte that develops into a lymphocyte.

p.16
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What defect is associated with Band 3?

Band 3 defect, which affects red blood cell membrane stability.

p.13
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What are some other causes of pencil cells?

Hereditary spherocytosis and G6PD deficiency.

p.1
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Techniques

What are the two types of hemoglobin electrophoresis?

Cellulose acetate electrophoresis (pH 8.4) and citrate electrophoresis (pH 6.2).

p.47
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the typical CBC finding in Hairy Cell Leukemia?

Pancytopenia with monocytopenia.

p.38
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What conditions are associated with a decreased LAP score?

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) and Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH).

p.22
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What is hyposegmented neutrophils also known as?

Pelger-Huët anomaly.

p.49
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the significance of HHV-8 positivity in HIV-positive patients with pleural effusion?

It is associated with Primary Effusion Lymphoma (PEL).

p.40
Hodgkin's Lymphoma Types and Genetics

What are the prominent features of the 'Owl Eye' nuclei?

They are 7 microns in size and called Mirror Image Nuclei.

p.27
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What chromosomal abnormality is associated with an unfavorable prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukemia?

Hypodiploidy or t(9:22).

p.46
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the Ki67/MIB percentage in Burkitt's Lymphoma?

100%.

p.49
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the typical presentation of HIV-positive patients with pleural and pericardial effusion?

Atypical lymphoid cells with positivity for CD30 and CD38.

p.1
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Techniques

What does it mean if hemoglobin is present towards both anode and cathode?

HbAS (sickle cell trait).

p.25
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the significance of the PAX5 gene in ALL?

Loss of function mutation in PAX5 is associated with B-cell development.

p.3
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What genes are present on chromosome 1 and chromosome 11 related to thalassemia?

4 genes are present on chromosome 1 and 2 genes are present on chromosome 11.

p.24
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the significance of PAS positivity in lymphoblasts?

It indicates the presence of specific enzymes in lymphoblasts.

p.3
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the genetic cause of alpha thalassemia?

Gene deletion.

p.48
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does Annexin A1 indicate?

Hairy Cell Leukemia.

p.3
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the genetic cause of beta thalassemia?

Gene mutation.

p.32
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most common genetic defect in CLL?

Deletion of 13q and 17p.

p.46
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What genetic marker is associated with Mantle Cell Lymphoma?

t(11:14).

p.52
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

Which cytokine is the most fibrogenic in primary myelofibrosis?

TGF-beta.

p.35
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

List the types of leukemia associated with BCR-ABL fusion in alphabetical order.

ALL, CML, CNL.

p.46
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most common demographic for Hairy Cell Leukemia?

M/C in boys.

p.14
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What type of cells are dacrocytes and where are they seen?

Dacrocytes are seen in myelofibrosis and myelophthisic anemia.

p.12
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What are the causes of space-occupying lesions in the bone marrow?

Metastasis and granuloma.

p.50
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which statement about Hairy Cell Leukemia is incorrect?

Patients show atypical Mycobacterial infection most commonly.

p.50
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which lymphoma most commonly involves the red pulp of the spleen?

Both B (Hepatosplenic Lymphoma) and C (Hairy Cell Lymphoma)

p.49
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the marker positivity for Anaplastic Large T-Cell Lymphoma?

CD30+.

p.50
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which lymphoma presents with cutaneous lesions?

Mycosis Fungoides

p.47
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What infections are associated with Hairy Cell Leukemia?

Mycobacterium Avium Complex.

p.38
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a characteristic finding in CML regarding LAP score?

Small LAP score and small (dwarf) megakaryocytes.

p.1
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Techniques

Which hemoglobins can be differentiated using citrate electrophoresis?

Hemoglobin S and Hemoglobin D.

p.49
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which lymphoma shows nearly 100% Ki67 positivity?

Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL).

p.10
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What happens to RBCs in Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria?

They will be broken down.

p.35
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

On which chromosome does the BCR-ABL fusion occur?

Chromosome 22, resulting in the Philadelphia Chromosome.

p.10
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is a common cause of Aplastic Anemia?

Idiopathic (most common).

p.30
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What percentage of cells must show myelodysplasia in AML associated with MDS?

At least 50%.

p.40
Hodgkin's Lymphoma Types and Genetics

What are the two types of Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

Classical Hodgkin's Lymphoma and Non-Classical Hodgkin's Lymphoma.

p.48
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What color is used in immunohistochemistry?

Brown.

p.11
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What are the characteristics of bone marrow in Aplastic Anemia?

Reduced cells and increased fat content.

p.32
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What new marker is positive in Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia?

CD 200.

p.34
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a characteristic of CLL cells compared to normal lymphoid cells?

CLL cells do not have a Germinal Center.

p.48
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of lymphoma is Mycosis fungoides?

Cutaneous T-cell Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (T-NHL).

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What is the normal absolute count range for Lymphocytes?

1000—4000/mm3.

p.48
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the clinical features of Mycosis fungoides?

Erythema and Pruritus.

p.46
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the markers for Mantle Cell Lymphoma?

Cyclin D1, CD5+, CD23-, CD200-.

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the main treatments for AML M3?

ATRA (all-trans retinoic acid) and arsenic trioxide (As2O3).

p.3
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the hemoglobin profile in thalassemia intermedia?

Increased HbF and normal HPLC.

p.43
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of lymphoma arises from the Marginal Zone?

Marginal Zone Lymphoma or Maltoma.

p.46
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a classical case of Mantle Cell Lymphoma characterized by?

CD5+ and CD23-, CD200-.

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a key feature of AML M5?

It consists only of monoblasts.

p.26
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the role of flow cytometry in leukemia diagnosis?

It is the diagnostic method of choice for identifying T/B lymphoblasts.

p.12
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

Which AIHA is associated with malignancy?

IgM - Cold agglutinin disease.

p.13
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What are bite cells?

Abnormal red blood cells seen in G6PD deficiency.

p.2
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Techniques

What is the retention time range for the S window?

3.90-4.30 minutes.

p.32
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is unique about Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia compared to other leukemias?

It is the only leukemia not associated with radiation.

p.42
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does Stage I of Hodgkin's Lymphoma indicate?

Single lymph node region affected.

p.47
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What do the hairy cells release that causes fibrosis of the marrow?

PDGF, TGF, and other factors.

p.1
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Techniques

What indicates the presence of HbA during electrophoresis?

If hemoglobin moves faster and reaches the anode.

p.25
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does ALL stand for in the context of leukemia classification?

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia.

p.41
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the characteristics of Classical Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells?

They are often described as having an 'owl's eye' appearance and are associated with mixed cellularity.

p.24
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the blast cell percentage for chronic leukemia?

Less than 20%.

p.43
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Name one type of B-cell Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma.

Follicular Lymphoma.

p.53
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What type of dysplasia is seen in MDS?

Dysplasia in RBC, WBC, and Platelets.

p.43
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the origin of Diffuse Large B-cell Lymphoma?

From the Germinal Center.

p.4
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

How does Thalassemia Major affect iron levels in patients?

Iron levels increase due to erythroid hyperplasia and repeated blood transfusions.

p.52
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What is a key defect in primary myelofibrosis?

It is a megakaryocyte defect.

p.4
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is a common skeletal manifestation in Thalassemia Major?

Crew cut skull.

p.6
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the primary cause of Thalassemia?

Defects in genes.

p.26
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the significance of the Bcr-Abl fusion protein?

It is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome and is a marker for certain leukemias, with varying weights indicating different types.

p.54
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is the significance of SF3B1 mutation in MDS?

Even 5% of ringed sideroblasts will be the cutoff.

p.48
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a characteristic finding in the biopsy of Mycosis fungoides?

Ret ridges in the epidermis.

p.34
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does Stage B in CLL staging indicate?

3 areas of lymphadenopathy only.

p.25
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are some trisomy abnormalities associated with ALL?

Trisomy 4, 7, and 10.

p.11
Hypoproliferative Anemias

Which virus is associated with Pure Red Cell Aplasia?

Parvovirus B19.

p.19
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What is the significance of myelocytes in blood cell formation?

They determine the formation of neutrophils, basophils, or eosinophils.

p.48
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What syndrome occurs when tumor cells enter blood vessels in Mycosis fungoides?

Sezary syndrome.

p.9
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What type of antibody is associated with Cold AIHA?

IgM.

p.30
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the staining pattern for AML M3?

PAS +.

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does the genotype AA/-- indicate in Thalassemia detection?

2 genes are deleted.

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the WHO classification for AML based on genetic abnormalities?

Includes recurrent genetic abnormalities such as (15;17) - PML-RARA for M3.

p.39
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the cell of origin for Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

Post-germinal center B cell.

p.2
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Techniques

What is the retention time range for the P1 window in the graph?

0.63-0.85 minutes.

p.32
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of leukemia is characterized by lymphocytes without blasts?

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL).

p.31
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which AML subtype shows both blasts and demonstrates deoxyribonuclease positivity?

AMLM4.

p.47
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a common finding in a bone marrow aspirate for Hairy Cell Leukemia?

Dry tap with a lot of hairy cells.

p.33
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a potential transformation of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?

CLL can transform into Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma (SLL).

p.19
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What are the CD markers for B-lymphocytes?

CD10, CD19 to 23, CD40.

p.33
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What syndrome is characterized by the combination of autoimmune hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia?

Evan's Syndrome.

p.19
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What CD markers are associated with NK cells?

CD16, CD56.

p.42
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does Stage III of Hodgkin's Lymphoma indicate?

Lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm are affected.

p.47
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is observed around the nucleus of hairy cells in a biopsy?

A white area around the nucleus.

p.42
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the 'A' and 'B' classifications in Hodgkin's Lymphoma staging?

'A' indicates no B symptoms; 'B' indicates B symptoms (fever, sweats, weight loss).

p.30
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the classification for AML that is not otherwise specified?

AML-NOS.

p.42
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the characteristic findings in a biopsy of a patient with Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

Large atypical cells positive for CD 15 and CD 30, negative for CD 3 and CD 45.

p.30
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which AML subtype is associated with Down's syndrome?

AMLM7.

p.42
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with cervical and inguinal lymphadenopathy, coughing, and significant weight loss, with biopsy showing large atypical cells?

Hodgkin's Lymphoma (specific subtype depends on additional findings).

p.17
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is a characteristic of Howell-Jolly bodies?

They appear as single dots.

p.34
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are some prognostic markers for CLL?

MicroRNA 1 and 10, CD 38, Notch, Zap70, B2 Microglobulin.

p.30
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the microscopic features of AML?

Myeloblasts and atypical monocytes/macrophages.

p.43
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What occurs in the Germinal Center?

Real exposure and challenge of B cells.

p.19
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What do lymphoblasts give rise to?

Lymphocytes.

p.48
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are collections of tumor cells in Mycosis fungoides referred to as?

Pautrier's Microabscess.

p.46
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What causes MALToma?

H. Pylori.

p.48
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What phenomenon is associated with Mycosis fungoides?

Epidermotropism.

p.3
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is a frameshift mutation in thalassemia?

Occurs at the 41/42 codon.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of cells are centrocytes?

Cleaved nucleus cells that look like the Bullock cell.

p.36
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What clinical feature is commonly associated with CML?

A dragging sensation in the abdomen due to massive splenomegaly.

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is unique about AML M7?

It is the least common and most correlated with Down syndrome.

p.39
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

How does Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma differ in lymph node involvement?

It involves weird lymph nodes (Mesenteric, Waldeyer's Ring) and tends to go outside the lymph nodes.

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is a characteristic of asymptomatic thalassemia trait?

Formation of 4 tetramers.

p.42
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which chemotherapy agents are commonly used for Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

Adriamycin, Bleomycin, Vincristine/Vinblastine, Dacarbazine.

p.12
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What mnemonic helps remember the association of IgM with malignancy?

M for Malignancy, M for Mycoplasma, M for IgM.

p.51
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What mutation is commonly found in Polycythemia Vera?

JAK2 V617F mutation.

p.27
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What laboratory findings are significant in the 5-year-old boy's case?

Hemoglobin of 8.0 g/dl, white blood cell count of 61,900/min³, and platelet count of 96,000/min³.

p.48
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does TRAP stand for in special staining?

Tartrate Resistant Acid Phosphatase.

p.52
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What is the significance of Bcr-Abl in myelofibrosis?

Bcr-Abl negative indicates a specific type of myelofibrosis.

p.38
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

In the context of a 49-year-old male with acute febrile illness, what does hyperleukocytosis with a left shift and increased basophils suggest?

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML).

p.6
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does the Osmotic Fragility Test assess?

The osmotic fragility of RBCs.

p.33
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is Richters syndrome?

Transformation of CLL into Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL).

p.35
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does the Philadelphia Chromosome represent?

It represents the chromosome where the BCR-ABL fusion occurs, not the entire translocation.

p.46
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the Ki67/MIB percentage in Luminal B Breast Cancer?

> 14%.

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What is the normal absolute count range for Neutrophils?

2000—7000/mm3.

p.10
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What does the peripheral smear show in Aplastic Anemia?

Pancytopenia.

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the treatment approach for AML M3?

No chemotherapy is used because killing the cells releases procoagulant material, leading to DIC.

p.31
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the specific translocations associated with favorable prognosis in AML?

t(8:21), t(15:17), or inv 16.

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the aim of treatment for AML M3?

To remove the block of promyelocytic to myelocytic maturation.

p.11
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is the criteria for Severe Aplastic Anemia (SAA)?

Bone marrow cellularity should be <25% and any two out of three specific points.

p.17
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is the appearance of Pappenheimer bodies?

They appear as multiple dots.

p.3
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What are the clinical features of thalassemia major?

Pallor, jaundice, splenomegaly.

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What is the characteristic shape of a Monocyte's nucleus?

Kidney-shaped or reniform.

p.30
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the significance of Auer rods in AML?

They are indicative of myeloblasts.

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What diseases are associated with Monocytes?

Malaria, JMML in children, and CMML in adults.

p.36
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does a 'shift to the left' indicate in CML?

The reappearance of immature forms alongside Eosinophils.

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

In which conditions are Eosinophils typically seen?

Allergies and parasitic infections.

p.34
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What genetic abnormality is associated with Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)?

t(9:21) - Philadelphia chromosome.

p.39
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the two main types of lymphoma?

Hodgkin's Lymphoma and Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma.

p.36
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What cytogenetic abnormalities are associated with CML?

i(17q) and trisomy 8.

p.39
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the pattern of spread for Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

It spreads non-contiguously.

p.5
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is a peripheral smear finding associated with Thalassemia Major?

Specific abnormalities in red blood cell morphology.

p.1
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Techniques

What direction do the hemoglobin bands move during electrophoresis?

From anode to cathode.

p.8
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does '3 AM' represent in the mnemonic?

3 gene deletion.

p.51
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What are the major criteria for diagnosing Polycythemia Vera?

Increase in hemoglobin, hematocrit, and panmyelosis.

p.23
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What genetic defect is associated with Chédiak-Higashi syndrome?

LYST gene defect.

p.51
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What clinical feature is associated with increased RBC in Polycythemia Vera?

Hyperviscosity leading to headaches and vision disturbances.

p.47
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the appearance of hairy cells in a bone marrow biopsy?

Fried egg appearance.

p.46
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the Ki67/MIB percentage in Luminal A Breast Cancer?

< 14%.

p.49
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of lymphoma is characterized by Primary Effusion Lymphoma?

Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma.

p.31
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What laboratory findings are suggestive of acute myeloblastic leukemia in the presented case?

HB 6.4 mg/dl; TLC 26,500/mm³; platelet 35,000/mm³.

p.17
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What are Pappenheimer bodies?

They are inclusions seen in certain types of anemia.

p.40
Hodgkin's Lymphoma Types and Genetics

What is a key association of Classical Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

It is associated with EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus).

p.24
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is Aleukemic leukemia?

A type of leukemia where blast cells are present in the bone marrow but not in the peripheral blood.

p.11
Hypoproliferative Anemias

Is splenomegaly seen in Aplastic Anemia?

No, splenomegaly is not seen.

p.24
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which leukemia is most common in individuals with Down's syndrome?

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL).

p.43
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the first stage of a B cell in the lymph node?

Naive B cell.

p.32
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are smudge cells associated with in CLL?

They are associated with the presence of fragile lymphocytes.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which chromosome is associated with Burkitt's Lymphoma?

Chromosome 8.

p.17
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What condition is associated with denatured hemoglobin?

Post-splenectomy.

p.41
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the prognosis for patients with Hodgkin's Lymphoma associated with HIV?

It is generally worse due to immunodeficiency.

p.9
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What happens to IgG antibodies in Warm AIHA?

They attach to P-Antigen on RBCs and are engulfed by the spleen.

p.3
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What mutation occurs in thalassemia genetics?

Mutation in the intervening sequence, such as IVS1-5 G → C in India.

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What is the appearance of Eosinophils?

Bilobed nucleus and orange-red granules.

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the Menlzer index threshold for Thalassemia?

Less than 13.

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What diseases are associated with Basophils?

CML (Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia) and PV (Polycythemia Vera).

p.9
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What prevents intravascular hemolysis (IVH) in Cold AIHA?

The presence of CD55 and CD59.

p.9
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What is the result of the destruction of RBCs in Cold AIHA?

Extravascular hemolysis (EVH).

p.39
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What role does the EBV virus play in Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

It has the LMP1 gene, which increases NF-kB levels, contributing to Hodgkin's Lymphoma.

p.24
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the two main types of leukemia?

Acute leukemia and chronic leukemia.

p.2
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Techniques

What is the retention time range for the D window?

4.30-4.70 minutes.

p.32
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most common genetic alteration in CLL?

Deletion of 13q.

p.31
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which AML subtype is associated with the highest concentration of auerrods?

AMLM3.

p.17
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is the figure of eight or reappearance associated with?

It is associated with the mitotic spindle rich in Arginine.

p.40
Hodgkin's Lymphoma Types and Genetics

What are the clinical features of Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

Pel-Ebstein fever, weight loss, painless lymphadenopathy, and pain on alcohol consumption.

p.48
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which markers are associated with TRAP staining?

CD 11c, CD 25, CD 103.

p.19
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What does myelopoiesis refer to?

The process of forming myeloid cells from myeloblasts.

p.1
High-Pressure Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)

What is the significance of High-Pressure Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) in hemoglobin disorders?

It is the gold standard test for any hemoglobin disorder.

p.54
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is the classification for MDS with excess blasts?

More than or equal to 15% blasts.

p.41
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which virus has the strongest association with mixed cellularity in Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

HIV.

p.6
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

How do Thalassemia cells respond to hypotonic saline?

They do not break, and the black line remains invisible.

p.33
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the significance of microRNA 15 and 16 in relation to CLL?

They are deleted in CLL.

p.9
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What is Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA)?

An autoimmune extracorpuscular defect.

p.41
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the significance of collagen bands in the context of Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

Collagen bands can create a retraction effect, leading to the appearance of a whitish area in the tissue.

p.9
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What are the two types of AIHA?

Warm AIHA (37°C) and Cold AIHA (4°C).

p.53
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What type of cells are identified as ringed sideroblasts in MDS?

Erythroid precursors with iron deposits.

p.43
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of lymphoma arises from the Germinal Center?

Follicular Lymphoma, Burkitt's Lymphoma, and Diffuse Large B-cell Lymphoma.

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the diagnosis of choice for AML M3?

FISH to detect chromosomal abnormalities (15:17).

p.52
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What blood picture is seen in primary myelofibrosis?

Leukoerythroblastic picture.

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What characterizes AML M4?

It involves myeloblasts and monoblasts.

p.26
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

How is ALL diagnosed?

Diagnosis involves peripheral blood and bone marrow analysis showing more than 20% lymphoblasts, along with specific stains and CD markers.

p.11
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What condition is associated with Thymoma?

Myasthenia Gravis (MG).

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a common symptom of AML M5?

Gum hypertrophy.

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is AML M6 also known as?

Pure erythroid leukemia, also referred to as Di Guglielmo Disease.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the two varieties of Richelieu's Syndrome?

Immunodeficiency associated and Primary Effusion Lymphoma.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most common Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL) in the world?

Follicular Lymphoma.

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is Hb Barts disease known for?

It results in intrauterine death.

p.19
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What are the CD markers for T-lymphocytes?

CD1 to 8, CD2, CD5.

p.53
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What type of blood vessel changes are observed in primary myelofibrosis?

Dilated sinusoids.

p.2
Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Techniques

What is the retention time range for the A window?

1.90-3.10 minutes.

p.48
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What color is the TRAP stain?

Red.

p.52
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What mutations are associated with myelofibrosis?

JAK2V617F, MPL, and CALR mutations.

p.38
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which statement about the CML accelerated phase is incorrect?

Persistent thrombocytosis, non-responsive to therapy.

p.54
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is the defining feature of MDS-ringed sideroblasts?

Presence of ringed sideroblasts.

p.41
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most common virus associated with Classical RS cells?

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV).

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of cell can Marginal Zone Lymphoma give rise to?

Memory B cells.

p.51
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What is a clinical feature of increased platelets in Essential Thrombocythemia?

Erythromelalgia, causing a burning sensation in hands and feet.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What do some B cells eventually change into?

Plasma cells.

p.51
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What is a characteristic finding in Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia?

Increased mast cells and basophils.

p.19
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What do myeloblasts give rise to?

Granulocytes (neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils).

p.40
Hodgkin's Lymphoma Types and Genetics

What are the characteristics of Non-Classical Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

It is not associated with EBV and has RS cells that are CD 20+, CD 45+, EMA+, and Beta G+.

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What defect is associated with AML M3?

A defect in the vitamin A receptor.

p.10
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is the platelet count in Aplastic Anemia?

Less than 100,000.

p.46
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What translocation occurs in Marginal Zone Lymphoma/MALToma?

t(11:18).

p.35
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the relationship between fusion protein weight and Tyrosine kinase activity?

Lower fusion protein weights correlate with higher Tyrosine kinase activity.

p.43
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What happens to B cells after exiting the Germinal Center?

They become Memory B cells.

p.34
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What transformation correlates with the appearance of large pleomorphic cells in a CLL patient?

Richter's Syndrome.

p.35
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What color indicates the translocation (9:22) and ABL-BCR fusion?

Yellow color is seen when they fuse.

p.35
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

How does the BCR-ABL fusion affect blood lineages?

It affects all lineages, including RBCs and platelets, due to its occurrence in stem cells.

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What staining technique shows two colors for WBCs?

Toluidine blue (Metachromatic stain).

p.9
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What happens to RBCs coated with C3b in Cold AIHA?

They change into C3d and are taken up by the liver for destruction.

p.39
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most common site of extra nodal lymphoma?

The stomach.

p.24
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?

The most common leukemia in children.

p.22
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What does May-Hegglin anomaly cause?

Giant platelets, low platelet count, and inclusions in granulocytes (Dohle body-like inclusions).

p.32
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

At what age is Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia most commonly seen?

In elderly patients, usually 60-65 years old.

p.43
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the two main types of Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma (NHL)?

B-cell NHL and T-cell NHL.

p.53
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What does MDS represent in terms of disease progression?

A precancerous stage.

p.23
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What is the Alter Reilly anomaly characterized by?

Large cytoplasmic granules.

p.33
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of lymphocytes are predominantly present in CLL?

High presence of lymphocytes, including activated ones.

p.23
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What condition is the Alter Reilly anomaly associated with?

Mucopolysaccharidoses.

p.33
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What pattern is observed in the structure of CLL?

A darker periphery and a lighter center, resembling a pseudofollicular pattern.

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What type of infections are Neutrophils associated with?

Acute inflammation and bacterial infections.

p.41
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of cells are typically found in the background of a lymph node biopsy for Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

Polymorphous background including eosinophils, plasma cells, and lymphocytes.

p.25
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does a loss of function mutation in lymphoblasts lead to?

Lymphoblastic leukemia.

p.10
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is the white blood cell count in Aplastic Anemia?

Less than 7,000.

p.25
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most common genetic abnormality in ALL?

Hyperdiploidy.

p.41
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What immunophenotyping markers are associated with Non-Classical Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

CD 20, CD 45, EMA, and Bet 6.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the translocation associated with Follicular Lymphoma?

t(14:18).

p.35
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which type of leukemia has the worst prognosis?

ALL, due to the lowest fusion protein weight and maximum Tyrosine kinase activity.

p.25
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the significance of the t(9:22) translocation in ALL?

It is associated with a poor prognosis.

p.11
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is a notable feature of erythroblasts in PRCA?

Dogear projections.

p.36
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the significance of basophils in CML?

CML is notably associated with the presence of basophils.

p.26
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the clinical significance of organ involvement in T-ALL?

It can lead to tissue infiltration and symptoms like hepatosplenomegaly.

p.9
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What does IgM do in Cold AIHA?

IgM attaches to the I-antigen on RBCs and can activate the complement system.

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does the genotype A-/-- indicate in Thalassemia detection?

3 genes are deleted.

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What are 'golfball inclusions' associated with?

They are associated with HbH disease.

p.23
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What are some clinical features of Chédiak-Higashi syndrome?

CNS alterations, hemorrhages, decreased immunity, albinism, coarse cytoplasmic granules.

p.51
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What is a common thrombotic episode associated with Polycythemia Vera?

Hepatic Vein Thrombosis (Budd-Chiari Syndrome).

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What does the acronym 'Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas' help identify?

Different types of white blood cells (WBCs).

p.10
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What are some causes of Aplastic Anemia?

Drugs, toxins, chemicals, viral infections, genetic syndromes.

p.25
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of ALL is characterized by tissue infiltration in the CNS, mediastinum, and testes?

T-ALL (T for teenagers).

p.31
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which AML subtype is associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

AMLM3.

p.17
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What type of anemia is associated with Heinz bodies?

G6PD deficiency.

p.40
Hodgkin's Lymphoma Types and Genetics

What are the characteristics of RS cells in Classical Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

RS cells are CD 15+, PAX 5+, and CD 30+.

p.30
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is Chloroma?

A type of myeloblastoma or granulocytic sarcoma, not a benign tumor.

p.52
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What mediators are released by megakaryocytes in primary myelofibrosis?

PDGF, TGF-beta, and FGF.

p.24
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the classifications of chronic leukemia?

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) and Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML).

p.34
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does Stage A in CLL staging indicate?

Less than 3 areas of lymphadenopathy.

p.25
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the prognosis associated with the t(12:21) translocation in ALL?

Bad prognosis.

p.53
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What is a notable feature of dysplasia in WBCs in MDS?

Presence of Döhle bodies.

p.26
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are common clinical features of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?

Commonly seen in children, with symptoms like anemia, fatigue, pallor, recurrent infections, and bleeding manifestations.

p.46
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the treatment for H. Pylori associated MALToma?

Antibiotics.

p.3
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is the normal percentage of HbA2?

Greater than 3.5%.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a characteristic of centroblasts?

They have a non-cleaved nucleus.

p.36
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the three phases of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)?

Chronic, Accelerated, and Blast Crisis.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which virus is associated with Primary Effusion Lymphoma?

Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8).

p.36
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the typical total leukocyte count (TLC) in the Accelerated phase of CML?

Increased or decreased.

p.39
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a characteristic cell found in Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

Reed-Sternberg cell.

p.46
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which tumors express CD99?

Granulosa cell tumor and Ewing's Sarcoma.

p.25
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What genetic mutation is commonly associated with T-ALL?

NOTCH mutation.

p.10
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is the hemoglobin level in Aplastic Anemia?

Less than 10 gm.

p.35
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of inhibitor is linatinib?

A tyrosine kinase inhibitor targeting BCR-ABL fusion.

p.3
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is thalassemia major's dependence?

Always dependent on transfusion.

p.35
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What translocation leads to the BCR-ABL fusion?

Translocation (9:22).

p.11
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What are the three specific points for diagnosing Severe Aplastic Anemia?

WBC neutrophils <300, RBC reticulocyte count <1%, and platelet count <20,000.

p.9
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What type of antibody is associated with Warm AIHA?

IgG.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What markers are positive in Mantle Cell Lymphoma?

Cyclin D1 and SOX 11.

p.30
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the diagnostic method for AML?

Cytometry, except for AML M3 which requires PISH.

p.34
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

Which leukemia rarely develops after radiation?

CLL.

p.30
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the staining pattern for AML M1?

MPO +, CAE +.

p.11
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of leukemia is mentioned in the context?

Large Granular Lymphocytic Leukemia (LGL).

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does the genotype AA/A- indicate in Thalassemia detection?

1 gene is deleted.

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most common hematological abnormality in newborns?

Transient abnormal myelopoiesis.

p.39
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the bimodal age distribution for Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

It commonly affects younger adults and the elderly.

p.43
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What type of cells does Burkitt's Lymphoma originate from?

Germinal Center B cells.

p.53
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What chromosomal abnormality is often seen in children with MDS?

Monosomy 7.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

From which cells does Multiple Myeloma arise?

Plasma cells.

p.53
Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

What staining method is used to identify iron in MDS?

Prussian Blue or Perl's Stain.

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

In which conditions are Lymphocytes typically seen?

Viral infections, chronic inflammation, typhoid, and TB.

p.30
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What markers are associated with AML?

MPO, CD43, CD45, and lysozyme.

p.11
Hypoproliferative Anemias

What is Pure Red Cell Aplasia (PRCA)?

A condition where only red blood cells are affected.

p.19
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What is a characteristic feature of myeloblasts?

They have Auer rods.

p.36
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the notable cell types observed in Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)?

Neutrophils, Metamyelocytes, Myelocytes, and Eosinophils.

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does the mnemonic 'ThALESSemia' represent?

It indicates that in Thalassemia A, there are absent lines.

p.30
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What stains are used for diagnosing different AML subtypes?

PAS, MPO, CAE, and NSE.

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What happens to the chains in Thalassemia due to gene deletion?

It results in missing chains.

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does the genotype AA/AA indicate in Thalassemia detection?

All 4 genes are present.

p.36
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What percentage of blasts is seen in the Blast Crisis phase of CML?

20% or more.

p.36
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What transformation occurs in myelopoiesis leading to neutrophils?

Myeloblast transforms into Promyelocyte, then Myelocyte, followed by Metamyelocyte, Band, and ultimately Neutrophil.

p.39
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most common site of extra nodal lymphoma in HIV-positive patients?

CNS lymphoma.

p.26
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What are the weights of the Bcr-Abl fusion protein in different leukemias?

190 kD in ALL, 210 kD in CML, and 230 kD in CNL.

p.52
Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders

What type of red blood cells are characteristic of primary myelofibrosis?

Teardrop RBCs (Dacrocytes).

p.34
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does Stage C in CLL staging indicate?

Antinuclear antibodies (+ ltJg/dl) and thrombocytopenia.

p.9
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What is the result of the process involving IgG in Warm AIHA?

Extravascular hemolysis (EVH).

p.35
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What colors represent the ABL and BCR genes in the translocation test?

ABL is red and BCR is green.

p.9
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

What is another name for IgM Cold AIHA?

Cold agglutinin disease.

p.39
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a characteristic of Hodgkin's Lymphoma regarding lymph node involvement?

It usually involves typical lymph nodes (Cervical, Axillary, Inguinal).

p.39
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the pattern of spread for Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

It spreads contiguously without skipping.

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What is formed in Hb Barts disease?

Y4 tetramers.

p.26
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What does a higher weight of the Bcr-Abl fusion protein indicate?

It indicates more tyrosine kinase activity, which is associated with a worse prognosis.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the most common indolent lymphoma?

Follicular Lymphoma.

p.9
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) Types

Which conditions are associated with Warm AIHA?

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) and Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE).

p.48
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is the term for the unique appearance of tumor nuclei in Mycosis fungoides?

Cerebriform Nucleus.

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What type of granules do Basophils have?

Blue-black granules.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is Richelieu's Syndrome?

A syndrome where small transformed cells become large.

p.21
Peripheral Blood Smear Findings

What are the two categories of diseases related to WBCs?

Non-neoplastic and neoplastic.

p.44
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What genetic arrangement is shown in Follicular Lymphoma?

Bcl6 gene rearrangements.

p.39
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What genetic change is associated with Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

Chromosome 2 copy gain and increase in the REL gene, which also increases NF-kB.

p.34
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What happens to the ABL gene in CML?

ABL translocates and sits over BCR.

p.29
Leukemia and Lymphoma Classification

What is a common finding in bone marrow aspiration for AML M7?

A dry tap due to fibrosis in the bone marrow.

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What does the genotype --/-- indicate in Thalassemia detection?

All 4 genes are deleted.

p.7
Thalassemia Types and Genetics

What mnemonic is associated with the fetus in Thalassemia?

Barbaad fetus.

Study Smarter, Not Harder
Study Smarter, Not Harder