What is the most common benign liver tumor?
Hemangioma.
What is the significance of CD15 and CD30?
They are markers for Hodgkin lymphoma.
1/166
p.8
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What is the most common benign liver tumor?

Hemangioma.

p.3
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What is the significance of CD15 and CD30?

They are markers for Hodgkin lymphoma.

p.7
High-Yield Concepts in Colorectal Neoplasms

What syndrome is associated with congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium and multiple intestinal polyps?

Gardner syndrome.

p.3
Oncogenes and Tumor Suppressor Genes

Which cancers are associated with the BRAF oncogene?

Melanoma, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, colorectal carcinoma, papillary thyroid carcinoma, and hairy cell leukemia.

p.3
Oncogenes and Tumor Suppressor Genes

What is the role of p53 in cancer?

It is known as the 'guardian of the genome' and is associated with Li-Fraumeni Syndrome.

p.8
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What is the typical hallmark of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) on imaging?

Vascular uptake of the nodule in the arterial phase with washout in the portal venous or delayed phases.

p.3
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What is neuron-specific enolase associated with?

Neuroendocrine tumors such as small cell lung cancer, carcinoid tumor, and neuroblastoma.

p.8
Types of Cancer Treatments

What is a rare form of primary liver cancer that typically affects children and young adults?

Fibrolamellar HCC.

p.8
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What benign liver mass is associated with contraceptive use?

Adenoma.

p.7
High-Yield Concepts in Colorectal Neoplasms

What common side effect is associated with oxaliplatin used in the FOLFOX regimen for colon cancer?

Dose-dependent sensory neuropathy.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What is the major risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

Chronic long-term sun exposure.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is the mechanism of action of Methotrexate?

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, interfering with DNA synthesis.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Genitourinary Malignancies

What is the leading risk factor for the development of bladder cancer?

Smoking.

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

What type of cancer can result from exposure to Diethylstilbestrol (DES) during fetal development?

Vaginal clear cell cancer.

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

What malignancies are associated with HIV?

Lymphoma (usually 8-cell) and Kaposi's sarcoma.

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What is a Krukenberg tumor?

Gastric cancer metastatic to the ovary.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What is erosion in dermatological terms?

Loss of epidermis without loss of dermis.

p.3
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What does CD20+, CD23+, and CD5 indicate?

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma (CLL/SLL).

p.1
High-Yield Concepts in Oncology

What is the most common cancer worldwide and the leading cause of cancer death?

Lung cancer.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What is a characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma?

Small waxy, semitranslucent nodules with a rolled or pearly edge.

p.3
Oncogenes and Tumor Suppressor Genes

What is the significance of the WT1 and WT2 genes?

They are associated with Wilm's Tumor.

p.1
Types of Cancer Treatments

What is the most effective means of treating cancer?

Surgery.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What antidote is given for Methotrexate-induced myelosuppression?

Leucovorin.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is the mechanism of action of 5-FU?

Inhibits thymidylate synthase.

p.1
Types of Cancer Treatments

What is systemic radiation therapy?

Radionuclides targeted to the site of the tumor.

p.5
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What method is used to assess hormonal and HER-2 status of breast carcinomas?

Immunohistochemistry (IHC).

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

What type of leukemia is associated with HTLV-1?

Adult T-cell leukemia.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What is an ulcer in dermatological terms?

Loss of both epidermis and dermis.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Genitourinary Malignancies

What scoring system is used to measure histologic aggressiveness of prostate cancers?

Gleason scoring (and WHO group grading).

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is the primary toxicity associated with Vincristine?

Neurotoxicity.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What do Irinotecan and Topotecan inhibit?

Topoisomerase I.

p.8
Types of Cancer Treatments

What are the candidates for resection in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)?

Single lesion, no metastasis, cirrhotic patients with single tumors ≤5 cm and portal hypertension.

p.7
High-Yield Concepts in Colorectal Neoplasms

What is the minimum number of lymph nodes necessary to accurately define tumor stage during surgery?

12 lymph nodes.

p.7
High-Yield Concepts in Colorectal Neoplasms

What is a major side effect of irinotecan used in the FOLFIRI regimen for colon cancer?

Diarrhea.

p.1
Oncogenes and Tumor Suppressor Genes

What leads to tumorigenesis in tumor suppressor genes?

Loss of function mutations.

p.8
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

What parasitic infections are associated with cholangiocarcinoma?

Clonorchis sinensis and Opisthorchis viverrini.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What is the most common type of melanoma?

Superficial spreading melanoma.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What is the single greatest determinant of metastasis in melanoma?

Depth of invasion (Breslow thickness).

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is the interaction between Azathioprine and 6-Mercaptopurine?

Increased toxicity when taken together.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Genitourinary Malignancies

What is the predominant therapy to reduce future risk of prostate cancer diagnosis?

5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride/dutasteride).

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

What types of cancer are linked to smoking?

Bladder, lung, esophageal, kidney, head and neck, and pancreatic cancers.

p.3
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

Which tumor markers are used for ovarian cancer?

CA-125 and HE-4.

p.1
High-Yield Concepts in Oncology

What is the most significant risk factor for cancer overall?

Age.

p.1
High-Yield Concepts in Oncology

What is the second most common cancer worldwide?

Breast cancer.

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What type of esophageal cancer arises in the upper two-thirds of the esophagus?

Squamous cell carcinoma.

p.2
Cancer Screening Recommendations

What is the recommended frequency for sigmoidoscopy screening in adults aged 50 years and older?

Every 5 years.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Genitourinary Malignancies

What vaccine component is used as intravesicular therapy in bladder cancer?

BCG.

p.1
Types of Cancer Treatments

What is brachytherapy?

Encapsulated sealed sources of radiation implanted directly or adjacent to the tumor.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What type of melanoma is most common in dark-skinned individuals and Asians?

Acral-lentiginous melanoma.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What should be monitored when taking 6-Mercaptopurine?

Intake of allopurinol, as 6-MP is metabolized by xanthine oxidase.

p.7
High-Yield Concepts in Colorectal Neoplasms

What genetic condition is characterized by multiple polyps in the intestines and associated tumors?

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP).

p.7
High-Yield Concepts in Colorectal Neoplasms

What type of colon cancer typically presents with obstructive symptoms?

Left-sided colon cancers.

p.7
High-Yield Concepts in Colorectal Neoplasms

What is the backbone chemotherapeutic agent for colon cancer?

5-fluorouracil (5-FU).

p.5
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What is the most common life-threatening metabolic complication of malignancy?

Hypercalcemia.

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What is the relationship between acid reflux and esophageal cancer?

Acid reflux is related to Barrett's esophagus, which can lead to adenocarcinoma.

p.2
Cancer Screening Recommendations

How often should adults aged 50 years and older undergo FOBT (fecal occult blood testing)?

Every year.

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

Which virus is linked to Burkitt's lymphoma?

Epstein-Barr virus.

p.8
Types of Cancer Treatments

What is the standard surgical procedure for pancreatic head and uncinate tumors?

Pancreaticoduodenectomy (modified Whipple's procedure).

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What antidote is given for 5-FU-induced myelosuppression?

Uridine.

p.11
Risk Factors for Cancer

What paraneoplastic syndrome is associated with hypercalcemia?

PTHrP, commonly seen in squamous cell carcinoma (lung, head & neck, skin, breast, GU, GI).

p.11
Risk Factors for Cancer

Which malignancies are associated with increased vitamin D levels?

Lymphomas.

p.2
Cancer Screening Recommendations

What should African American men or those with a family history of prostate cancer do regarding screening?

Start discussions at age 45.

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

What cancers are associated with H. pylori infection?

Gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Soft Tissue Malignancies

What is the most common malignant tumor of bone?

Plasma cell tumors.

p.11
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is a notable side effect of cyclophosphamide?

Hemorrhagic cystitis; MESNA is the antidote.

p.8
Risk Factors for Cancer

What is the leading risk factor for pancreatic cancer?

Smoking.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What genetic condition is characterized by an inability to repair DNA pyrimidine dimers caused by UV exposure?

Xeroderma pigmentosum.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What is the most common type of skin cancer in humans?

Basal cell carcinoma.

p.3
Oncogenes and Tumor Suppressor Genes

What does the RAS oncogene indicate?

It is associated with colon, lung, and pancreatic cancer.

p.5
Types of Cancer Treatments

What is the treatment of choice for early (stage 1 or 2) non-small cell lung cancer?

Surgical resection.

p.8
Types of Cancer Treatments

What are Klatskin tumors?

Nodular tumors arising at the bifurcation of the common bile duct.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What are the characteristics of a malignant melanoma lesion?

Asymmetry, border irregularity, color variegation, diameter >6mm, and change in the lesion.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Genitourinary Malignancies

Which chronic infection can lead to squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder?

Schistosoma haematobium.

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What are some implicated risk factors for gastric cancer?

Low socio-economic class, H. pylori infection, ingestion of high concentrations of nitrates in preserved foods.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is the effect of Cytarabine?

Pancytopenia.

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What is the only chance of cure for gastric cancer?

Complete surgical removal of the tumor with resection of adjacent lymph nodes.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is the mnemonic for Vinblastine's effect?

'Blast the bone marrow' indicates myelosuppression.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Soft Tissue Malignancies

What is the malignant primary bone tumor commonly located at the metaphysis of long bones?

Osteosarcoma.

p.11
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is a significant side effect of busulfan?

Pulmonary fibrosis.

p.8
Types of Cancer Treatments

What is the first treatment choice for Child Pugh B and C cirrhosis?

Liver transplantation.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What are the common presentations of Xeroderma pigmentosum?

Dry skin, photosensitivity, and skin cancer.

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What are the main risk factors for esophageal cancer?

Smoking and alcohol consumption.

p.8
Types of Cancer Treatments

What is the second most common liver cancer following HCC?

Cholangiocarcinoma.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What is the known precursor lesion of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

Actinic keratosis.

p.2
Cancer Screening Recommendations

What is the recommended frequency for colonoscopy screening in adults aged 50 years and older?

Every 10 years.

p.2
Cancer Screening Recommendations

At what age should women begin Pap smear screening?

At age 21.

p.5
Types of Cancer Treatments

What monoclonal antibody is used for breast cancers targeting the HER2/neu receptor?

Trastuzumab.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Genitourinary Malignancies

What is the classic triad of renal cell carcinoma?

Hematuria, abdominal pain, and palpable abdominal mass.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Genitourinary Malignancies

Where do most prostate cancers develop?

Peripheral zone.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What does Hydroxyurea inhibit?

Ribonucleotide reductase.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is the effect of Taxanes on microtubules?

Hyperstabilize polymerized microtubules, preventing breakdown.

p.11
Risk Factors for Cancer

Which paraneoplastic syndrome is linked to thymoma?

Myasthenia gravis and pure red cell aplasia.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Soft Tissue Malignancies

What is the most important prognostic factor for long-term survival in osteosarcoma?

Response to chemotherapy.

p.7
High-Yield Concepts in Colorectal Neoplasms

What is the most effective class of agents to reduce the risk of colon adenomas and carcinomas?

Aspirin and NSAIDs.

p.5
Risk Factors for Cancer

What types of lung cancer are most commonly associated with smoking?

Small cell and squamous cell lung cancer.

p.5
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What syndrome is associated with tumors growing in the apex of the lung?

Pancoast syndrome.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

Where is the most common site for basal cell carcinoma?

Face, head, and neck area.

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

Which carcinogens are linked to bladder cancer?

Aromatic dyes and Schistosoma.

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What threshold of dysphagia indicates significant esophageal circumference infiltration?

>60% of the esophageal circumference.

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What type of gastric adenocarcinoma is frequently ulcerative?

Intestinal type, often involving the antrum and lesser curvature.

p.1
Risk Factors for Cancer

What are the most significant risk factors for head and neck cancer?

Alcohol and smoking.

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

What type of cancer is caused by UV radiation?

Skin cancer.

p.2
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What is the significance of cKIT (CD117) in tumor markers?

It is associated with gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) and mastocytosis.

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

What is the association of HBV, HCV, aflatoxin-1, and ethanol?

Hepatocellular carcinoma.

p.2
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What does PSA stand for and what cancer is it associated with?

Prostate-specific antigen; associated with prostate cancer.

p.11
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is a notable side effect of oxaliplatin?

Neurotoxicity.

p.7
High-Yield Concepts in Colorectal Neoplasms

What type of colonic polyps are most associated with malignancy?

Villous architecture.

p.5
Risk Factors for Cancer

What is the primary cause of lung cancer worldwide?

Smoking.

p.5
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What is the most common histology of lung cancer overall?

Adenocarcinoma of the lung.

p.1
Oncogenes and Tumor Suppressor Genes

What are genes involved in restraining cell growth called?

Tumor suppressor genes.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Genitourinary Malignancies

What is the initial manifestation of an underlying urinary tract cancer?

Painless hematuria (either gross or microscopic).

p.5
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What immunostains are used for squamous cell carcinoma?

P63 and P40.

p.8
Types of Cancer Treatments

What does Courvoisier's sign indicate?

Palpable gallbladder associated with obstructive biliary malignancy.

p.2
Cancer Screening Recommendations

What is the recommended interval for Pap smear screening?

Every 3 years.

p.10
High-Yield Concepts in Lung Cancer

What is lichenification?

Thickening of skin with accentuation of skin fold markings.

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What are Sister Mary Joseph nodes?

Gastric cancer metastatic to the periumbilical region.

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

What cancer is associated with vinyl chloride exposure?

Liver angiosarcoma.

p.2
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What cancers are associated with hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)?

Hydatidiform moles, choriocarcinomas, and testicular cancer.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What do Etoposide and Teniposide inhibit?

Topoisomerase II.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is a significant side effect of Irinotecan?

Severe diarrhea and myelosuppression.

p.7
High-Yield Concepts in Colorectal Neoplasms

What is a common symptom of right-sided colon cancers?

Iron-deficiency anemia.

p.3
Oncogenes and Tumor Suppressor Genes

What type of cancer is associated with the APC tumor suppressor gene?

Colon cancer (Familial Adenomatous Polyposis - FAP).

p.3
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

Which tumor markers are associated with breast cancer?

CA 15-3 and BRCA1/BRCA2.

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

What type of cancer is associated with alkylating agents and benzene?

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML).

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What are the initial symptoms of esophageal cancer?

Progressive dysphagia and weight loss.

p.5
Breast Cancer Risk Factors and Treatments

What is the most important prognostic variable in breast cancer?

Tumor stage.

p.5
Breast Cancer Risk Factors and Treatments

What hormonal treatment increases the risk of endometrial cancer in breast cancer patients?

Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERM).

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

Which virus is linked to cancers of the cervix and anus?

Human Papilloma Virus (HPV).

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What is the most common site for hematogenous spread of gastric cancer?

Liver.

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What is the primary treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma?

Eradication of H. pylori (as long as it has not transformed into DLBCL).

p.2
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What condition is indicated by elevated levels of AFP (alpha fetoprotein)?

Hepatocellular carcinoma and neural tube defects.

p.11
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is the main effect of dactinomycin/actinomycin D?

Myelosuppression.

p.8
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What is focal nodular hyperplasia marked by?

Central stellate scar.

p.5
Types of Cancer Treatments

What is the treatment of choice for small cell lung cancer?

Chemotherapy.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Genitourinary Malignancies

What is the most common histology of bladder cancer?

Urothelial carcinoma (formerly referred to as transitional cell carcinoma).

p.1
Types of Cancer Treatments

What is teletherapy?

Delivery of radiation therapy from a distance.

p.2
Cancer Screening Recommendations

What is the screening recommendation for women aged 40-44?

Provide the opportunity to begin annual screening.

p.2
Cancer Screening Recommendations

What is the recommendation for mammography screening for women aged 55 and older?

Transition to biennial screening or continue annual screening.

p.11
Risk Factors for Cancer

What is the paraneoplastic syndrome associated with SIADH?

Small cell carcinoma of the lung, carcinoid tumors, GI, GU, ovarian cancer, and intracranial neoplasms.

p.11
Risk Factors for Cancer

Which tumors are associated with hypoglycemia from IGF-2 excess?

Mesenchymal tumors, hepatocellular, and adrenal carcinomas.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Soft Tissue Malignancies

What is the mainstay of treatment for Ewing's sarcoma, PNET, and rhabdomyosarcoma?

Chemotherapy.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Soft Tissue Malignancies

What characteristic x-ray findings are associated with osteosarcoma?

Codman triangle or sunburst pattern.

p.11
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is a significant side effect of bleomycin?

Pulmonary fibrosis.

p.1
Oncogenes and Tumor Suppressor Genes

What are mutated forms of genes involved in normal cellular growth called?

Oncogenes.

p.4
Carcinogens and Associated Cancers

What cancers are associated with asbestos exposure?

Lung cancer and mesothelioma.

p.6
High-Yield Concepts in Gastric and Esophageal Cancer

What type of gastric adenocarcinoma is characterized by loss of cell cohesion?

Diffuse type (linitis plastica or leather bottle appearance).

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Genitourinary Malignancies

What is the most common histopathologic type of renal carcinoma?

Clear cell carcinoma.

p.1
Types of Cancer Treatments

What is the most commonly used treatment for head and neck cancers?

Chemoradiotherapy.

p.1
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What are the most effective drugs against highly emetogenic agents?

Serotonin receptor antagonists (e.g., ondansetron).

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Genitourinary Malignancies

What test is used to establish a prostate cancer diagnosis?

Image-guided needle biopsy.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Soft Tissue Malignancies

What is the most common presentation of soft tissue sarcomas?

Asymptomatic mass.

p.11
Risk Factors for Cancer

What is Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome associated with?

Small cell carcinoma of the lung.

p.11
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What adverse effects are associated with cisplatin?

Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and neuropathy; amifostine is the antidote.

p.2
Cancer Screening Recommendations

At what age should men start discussing prostate cancer testing with their doctor?

At age 50.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What are the side effects of Hydroxyurea?

Myelosuppression and GI upset.

p.2
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What type of cancer is calcitonin a marker for?

Medullary thyroid cancer.

p.12
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What are the side effects of Etoposide and Teniposide?

Alopecia, GI irritation, and myelosuppression.

p.11
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What type of toxicity is associated with nitrosoureas?

Neurotoxicity.

p.11
Risk Factors for Cancer

What causes Cushing's Syndrome in paraneoplastic syndromes?

Ectopic ACTH production, commonly from small cell lung cancer, carcinoid, pancreatic islet cell tumors, and neural tumors.

p.11
Risk Factors for Cancer

What malignancies are associated with polycythemia?

Renal and hepatocellular cancer, cerebellar hemangiomas.

p.2
Tumor Markers and Immunohistochemistry

What cancers are associated with CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen)?

Colon, pancreatic, breast, lung, and ovarian cancer.

p.9
High-Yield Concepts in Soft Tissue Malignancies

What site is most commonly involved in bone metastasis?

Vertebrae.

p.11
Risk Factors for Cancer

What is Trousseau's Syndrome associated with?

Pancreatic cancer (migratory thrombophlebitis).

p.11
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What are the common adverse effects of alkylating agents?

Alopecia, bone marrow toxicity, and gonadal failure.

p.11
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What reaction can procarbazine cause?

Disulfiram-like reaction.

p.11
Chemotherapy Drugs and Their Effects

What is the main adverse effect of doxorubicin?

Cardiotoxicity; dexrazoxane is the antidote.

Study Smarter, Not Harder
Study Smarter, Not Harder