What does it mean if clotting is seen only with Anti-B?
The blood group is B-.
What is the spike level of M in the report?
4.24 g/dL.
1/421
p.29
Blood Group Genetics

What does it mean if clotting is seen only with Anti-B?

The blood group is B-.

p.6
Multiple Myeloma

What is the spike level of M in the report?

4.24 g/dL.

p.41
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What does TAT stand for in transfusion terminology?

Turnaround Time.

p.6
Multiple Myeloma

What is the albumin level reported?

0.799 g/dL.

p.41
Blood Group Genetics

Which blood group cells agglutinate most strongly with Ulex europaeus lectin?

A1 and A2.

p.11
Coagulation Pathways

What does PDGF stand for?

Platelet-derived growth factor.

p.39
Blood Group Genetics

What blood type is indicated by the presence of Anti-A and Anti-D agglutination but not Anti-B?

A positive.

p.39
Blood Group Genetics

What is the control result in the blood grouping test?

Control is clean.

p.9
Bone Marrow Findings

What is a Dwarf Megakaryocyte?

A megakaryocyte that becomes small in size, seen in Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML).

p.47
Blood Donation and Transfusion

Which vacutainer reduces the clotting time to 5 minutes?

C. Orange.

p.43
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What are the uses of heparin vacutainers?

Osmotic fragility testing, immunophenotyping (CD markers), blood gas (ABG).

p.40
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the purpose of a biomixer?

To mix blood samples for testing.

p.2
Multiple Myeloma

What type of cells are present in bone and associated with multiple myeloma?

Osteoblasts.

p.31
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the role of anticoagulants in blood donation?

They are mixed with the blood to prevent clotting.

p.27
Blood Group Genetics

What antigen is common in all blood groups mentioned?

H antigen.

p.23
Platelet Function and Disorders

What does increased light transmittance indicate in platelet testing?

It indicates platelet aggregation.

p.16
Coagulation Pathways

What happens to thrombin time in hypofibrinogenemia?

Thrombin time increases.

p.23
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the purpose of Ristocetin in platelet testing?

To test for platelet adhesion.

p.27
Blood Group Genetics

Who identified the Bombay blood group?

A group of scientists called Bhende et al.

p.44
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What type of vial is used for HbA1c testing?

Purple/lavender vial.

p.41
Blood Group Genetics

What peripheral smear finding is noted in a patient with involuntary movements?

Spur/Acanthocytes.

p.8
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the normal size of platelets?

3 to 4 microns.

p.25
Coagulation Pathways

What is a common treatment for issues with fibrinogen?

Cryoprecipitate and platelets.

p.45
Coagulation Pathways

Why is sodium fluoride added to blood samples?

To inhibit glycolysis and prevent false fasting glucose reports.

p.12
Coagulation Pathways

What is the significance of fibrin in the coagulation process?

Fibrin is the main component of blood clots.

p.6
Multiple Myeloma

What is the treatment mentioned for Multiple Myeloma?

Lenalidomide, Dexamethasone, and Bortezomib.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

What does Von Willebrand Disease (VWD) involve?

Both platelet and coagulation factor defects.

p.40
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is an apheresis machine used for?

To collect specific blood components.

p.1
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus in plasma cells?

To secrete immunoglobulin, which are proteins formed by the Golgi apparatus.

p.22
Platelet Function and Disorders

What does the Y-axis represent in the graph?

Optical density.

p.34
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the difference between Random Donor Platelets (RDP) and Single Donor Platelets (SDP)?

RDP is collected from multiple donors, while SDP is collected from a single person.

p.21
Platelet Function and Disorders

What are the three steps measured by platelet aggregometry?

Platelet adhesion, platelet secretion, and platelet aggregation.

p.31
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the function of the Bioinixer machine?

It displays weight and has an auto clamp for mixing blood with anticoagulants.

p.14
Coagulation Pathways

What does the urea clot solubility test measure?

Factor 13.

p.34
Platelet Function and Disorders

Why are Single Donor Platelets preferred over Random Donor Platelets?

Because they cause less reaction in the patient as they are obtained from a single donor.

p.30
Blood Group Genetics

What blood type is indicated when it is non-reactive?

O-.

p.20
Platelet Function and Disorders

What are two reasons for a raised APTT identified in mixing studies?

Factor deficiency (e.g., Factor 8 deficiency) and presence of antibodies (e.g., APLA).

p.45
Coagulation Pathways

What additive is used in the gray container to inhibit glycolysis?

Sodium fluoride (NaF).

p.38
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is autologous blood transfusion?

Giving blood to oneself.

p.6
Multiple Myeloma

What are the criteria for Monoclonal Gammopathy of Undetermined Significance (MGUS)?

Plasma Cell <10% and no myeloma-defining event (MDE).

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What pathway is activated by plasma cell proliferation in multiple myeloma?

The RANKL pathway.

p.14
Bleeding Disorders

What are some vascular defects that can lead to bleeding disorders?

Scurvy, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, amyloidosis, Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome.

p.20
Platelet Function and Disorders

How is a factor deficiency identified using mixing studies?

By mixing the patient's sample with normal fresh frozen plasma and measuring APTT; if APTT normalizes, it's a factor deficiency.

p.38
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is Preoperative Autologous Blood Donation (PAD)?

Blood is collected well before elective surgery.

p.36
Transfusion Reactions

What is an immediate transfusion reaction?

Occurs within 24 hours and can include allergies, anaphylaxis, febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR), and hemolytic reactions.

p.41
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What does leukoreduced RBC refer to?

Red blood cells that have had most of their white blood cells removed.

p.21
Platelet Function and Disorders

What does a high APTT suggest in mixing studies?

More antibodies present.

p.9
Bone Marrow Findings

What characterizes a Staghorn Megakaryocyte?

The nucleus is shaped like deer horns, seen in Essential Thrombocythemia (ET).

p.36
Transfusion Reactions

How can FNHTR be prevented?

By removing white blood cells from RBCs, often using leucoreduced RBCs.

p.7
Plasma Cell Leukemia

What is another name for Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma?

LPL.

p.36
Transfusion Reactions

What is Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)?

A reaction that occurs within 6 hours, related to anti-HLA antibodies in the donor reacting with recipient HLA antigens, causing non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

p.28
Blood Group Genetics

What condition can antibodies against the P antigen cause?

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

p.35
Transfusion Reactions

What are the mandatory tests for screening transfusion-transmitted infections?

HIV Type I and II, HBV, HCV, and Syphilis.

p.25
Coagulation Pathways

What does an elevated LY30 indicate?

Increased lysis of clot, suggesting fibrinolysis.

p.10
Coagulation Pathways

What are the three steps in clot formation?

Platelet adhesion, platelet secretion, and platelet aggregation.

p.47
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the purpose of the red tube in blood collection?

For serum profiles.

p.31
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What are the three components blood is split into after donation?

Packed red blood cells, platelet-rich plasma, and fresh frozen plasma.

p.37
Transfusion Reactions

What are common indicators of TACO?

Elevated BP, JVP, and BNP.

p.8
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the precursor cell for platelets?

Megakaryocyte, present in bone marrow.

p.34
Coagulation Pathways

What is the significance of Von Willebrand factor (VWF) in Cryoprecipitate?

It is important for blood clotting and is present in abundance.

p.32
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What are the three hypothetical components blood can be separated into?

PRP (Platelet-Rich Plasma), PRBC (Packed Red Blood Cells), and FFA (Fresh Frozen Plasma).

p.35
Transfusion Reactions

How quickly should platelet-rich plasma (PRP) or fresh frozen plasma (FFP) be transfused?

Within 20 minutes.

p.26
Blood Group Genetics

What does the H gene do?

Acts as a glycosyl transferase and adds H substance to a blood group.

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What happens to alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels in multiple myeloma?

ALP levels remain normal due to no bone formation.

p.10
Coagulation Pathways

What happens to endothelial cells during an injury?

They are damaged, leading to bleeding.

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

What is the concentration of Trisodium citrate in the light blue vacutainer?

3.2%.

p.33
Blood Donation and Transfusion

How long can blood be stored when using CPD-A?

5 weeks or 35 days.

p.32
Transfusion Reactions

What risk do white blood cells pose during blood transfusion?

They can pose a risk for CMV (Cytomegalovirus) transmission.

p.40
Blood Group Genetics

What are the possible blood group types mentioned?

A+, B+, AB+, O+.

p.5
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What does a positive CD 56 marker indicate?

It indicates the presence of malignant plasma cells.

p.16
Coagulation Pathways

What results in thrombus formation?

More fibrinogen is converted to fibrin, leading to a decrease in fibrinogen.

p.28
Blood Group Genetics

What is the significance of Duffy antigen-negative patients?

They are protective against Plasmodium vivax and knowlesi.

p.44
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What is the effect of heparin on platelet clumping?

It causes platelet clumping, yielding inappropriate results.

p.10
Platelet Function and Disorders

What does the nucleus of a megakaryocyte resemble?

A cloud.

p.44
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What tests are green top vacutainers used for?

Glucose estimation: FBS, PPBS, RBS, GTT.

p.21
Platelet Function and Disorders

What happens to light transmission when cells are dispersed in platelet-rich plasma?

Light does not transmit.

p.24
Coagulation Pathways

What is the normal reaction time for clot development?

4 to 8 minutes.

p.28
Blood Group Genetics

What chromosome is the Rh antigen located on?

Chromosome 1.

p.2
Multiple Myeloma

What are Bence Jones proteins?

Proteins made up of light chains found in urine of myeloma patients.

p.11
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the significance of Gp2b/3a in platelets?

Gp2b/3a allows aggregation between platelets and fibrinogen.

p.7
Plasma Cell Leukemia

What clinical feature is associated with increased IgM in Plasma Cell Leukemia?

Hyperviscosity.

p.2
Multiple Myeloma

What condition can result from light chain excess in multiple myeloma?

Myeloma kidney, which is a type of amyloidosis.

p.11
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the primary function of delta granules in platelets?

They release substances like ADP, serotonin, and calcium.

p.18
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What is a characteristic of macroangiopathic hemolytic anemia?

Larger blood vessels are involved.

p.45
Coagulation Pathways

How many times should the gray container be inverted after sample collection?

8-10 times.

p.27
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the safest blood group for transfusion in emergencies?

O blood group.

p.25
Coagulation Pathways

What does a hypercoagulable state indicate in the context of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

Lots of clots are formed, with reduced R time and K time.

p.30
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the age range for blood donation?

18-65 years.

p.43
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What does a light green vacutainer contain?

Lithium heparin.

p.43
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What does a dark green vacutainer contain?

Sodium heparin.

p.31
Blood Donation and Transfusion

How much blood does a 55 kg person typically donate?

450 ml blood.

p.36
Transfusion Reactions

What is a febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR)?

A reaction where the patient has a fever but no hemolysis occurs, often due to massive cytokine release from WBC.

p.40
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What does crossmatch refer to?

Testing compatibility between donor and recipient blood.

p.5
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What type of antibodies are present in the blood sample?

Polyclonal and monoclonal antibodies.

p.21
Platelet Function and Disorders

What principle does platelet aggregometry rely on?

Increased light transmittance.

p.5
Multiple Myeloma

What is indicated by an M spike in SPEP?

The presence of monoclonal proteins, often associated with multiple myeloma.

p.10
Platelet Function and Disorders

In which condition is a cloud-like megakaryocyte seen?

Myelofibrosis.

p.8
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the normal lifespan of platelets?

7 to 10 days.

p.7
Plasma Cell Leukemia

What mutation is commonly found in Plasma Cell Leukemia?

MYD88 mutation.

p.14
Coagulation Pathways

What happens to the clot if factor 13 is deficient?

The clot is soluble.

p.36
Transfusion Reactions

What parameters can help differentiate between TRALI and TACO?

Blood pressure (BP), jugular venous pressure (JVP), and B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP).

p.28
Blood Group Genetics

What is the common Rh antigen?

D antigen.

p.21
Platelet Function and Disorders

What does ristocetin test for?

Platelet adhesion.

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

What type of vacutainer is used for blood collection in coagulation tests?

Light blue vacutainer.

p.31
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What are the two types of bags used for blood collection from the mother bag?

TAB bag (Top And Bottom bag) and TAT bag (Top And Top bag).

p.37
Delayed Transfusion Reactions

What can cause delayed transfusion reactions?

Mismatches of minor blood groups like Kell, Duffy, Lewis, etc.

p.12
Coagulation Pathways

Which factor is essential at junction points for activating Factor 10?

Factor 4 (calcium).

p.34
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the optimal storage temperature for platelets?

2-6°C.

p.47
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the purpose of the gray tube in blood collection?

For glucose testing.

p.7
Plasma Cell Leukemia

Which cytokine is crucial for the proliferation and survival of myeloma cells?

IL-6.

p.8
Platelet Function and Disorders

Where are megakaryocytes located?

In a perisinusoidal location.

p.15
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the typical resolution time for Acute ITP?

Usually within 6 months.

p.43
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What is the preferred anticoagulant in a purple vacutainer?

K2 EDTA.

p.44
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What is the most preferred anticoagulant in green vacutainers?

K2 EDTA.

p.36
Transfusion Reactions

What causes hemolytic transfusion reactions?

Most commonly due to clerical errors or minor blood group problems.

p.1
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What is similar between plasma cells and osteoblasts?

Both have an eccentric nucleus on one side and a Perinuclear Halo.

p.7
Plasma Cell Leukemia

What percentage of plasma cells is required in peripheral blood for Plasma Cell Leukemia diagnosis?

>20%.

p.47
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the mnemonic for the order of blood collection?

Stop Light is Red, Stay Green Light says Go.

p.28
Blood Group Genetics

What type of antibodies are produced against the I antigen?

IgM antibodies.

p.47
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What type of tube is used for cultures?

Sterile - Light Yellow.

p.29
Blood Group Genetics

What does clotting with Anti-D indicate?

The presence of Rh factor, indicating a positive blood group.

p.19
Coagulation Pathways

What is a characteristic feature of hemolytic anemia?

Forms schistocytes.

p.31
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the purpose of the Pre Donation Bag (PDB)?

It collects contaminated blood for testing transfusion-transmitted infections.

p.30
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What happens if the control in an ELISA test comes positive?

The test becomes invalid because the control should always be clean.

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

What tests are included in coagulation mains?

PT, APTT, and TT.

p.33
Platelet Function and Disorders

What happens to platelets when the bag is turned upside down?

They start moving in a swirling type of movement.

p.42
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What tests are included in the Purple/Lavender top vacutainer?

CBC, Peripheral smear, Reticulocyte count, ESR (Wintrobe), HbA1c.

p.16
Coagulation Pathways

What is Hemophilia B also known as?

Christmas factor disease (Factor 9 deficiency).

p.7
Plasma Cell Leukemia

What are the symptoms of hyperviscosity in Plasma Cell Leukemia?

Headache, visual disturbance, hemorrhage (cerebral, retinal).

p.2
Multiple Myeloma

What is the typical light chain ratio produced in normal immunoglobulin?

60:40 ratio of kappa to lambda light chains.

p.19
Coagulation Pathways

What happens to clotting factors and platelets in DIC?

They get consumed, leading to a decrease in their levels.

p.28
Blood Group Genetics

What can happen if there is Rh incompatibility between mother and child?

It can create issues due to IgG antibodies crossing the placenta.

p.35
Transfusion Reactions

What should be done to FFP before transfusion?

It should be thawed/melted.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

What happens to monomers of VWF?

They gradually become multimers, which are broken by ADAMTS.

p.16
Coagulation Pathways

What is the treatment for Hemophilia A?

Cryoprecipitate rich in factor 8 and VWF.

p.1
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

Why is the area around the nucleus of a plasma cell white?

Because there is a lot of Golgi apparatus present.

p.44
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What should not be used for PCR?

Heparin.

p.1
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What type of cell is identified by an eccentric nucleus and a Perinuclear Halo?

Osteoblast.

p.25
Coagulation Pathways

What is the normal value range for the Alpha Angle?

47 to 74 degrees.

p.2
Multiple Myeloma

What genetic abnormality is associated with multiple myeloma?

t(11;14), also seen in mantle cell lymphoma.

p.31
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What size needle is used for blood donation?

An 18-19 gauge needle.

p.2
Multiple Myeloma

What is MGUS?

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance.

p.36
Transfusion Reactions

What differentiates TRALI from TACO?

TRALI is associated with anti-HLA antibodies, while TACO occurs due to existing comorbidities like congestive heart failure.

p.29
Blood Group Genetics

What blood group is indicated if clotting is seen with Anti-A, Anti-B, and Anti-D?

AB+.

p.35
Transfusion Reactions

What is the time frame for transfusing blood after removal from the refrigerator?

Within 30 minutes.

p.20
Platelet Function and Disorders

What antibodies are associated with Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome (APLA)?

Antibeta2glycoprotein antibody, Anticardiolipin antibody, and Lupus anticoagulant (LAC).

p.29
Blood Group Genetics

What does it mean if no clotting is seen with any of the antisera?

The blood group is O.

p.30
Blood Donation and Transfusion

How many wells does an ELISA plate have?

96 wells (12 horizontally and 8 vertically).

p.24
Coagulation Pathways

What is the K-time in TEG analysis?

Time until clot firmness is achieved, typically 1 to 4 minutes.

p.23
Platelet Function and Disorders

What conditions are associated with problems in ADP, epinephrine, and collagen testing?

Glanzmann thrombasthenia.

p.21
Platelet Function and Disorders

What do ADP, epinephrine, and collagen increase the binding of?

GPIIb/IIIa.

p.47
Blood Donation and Transfusion

Which tube is used for routine tests like CBC?

Lavender.

p.33
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the shelf life of blood when ACD or CPD is used?

3 weeks or 21 days.

p.2
Multiple Myeloma

What is a myeloma cast?

A fractured cast formed from light chains in the kidneys.

p.12
Coagulation Pathways

What is the status of Factor 6 in the coagulation pathway?

Factor 6 does not exist.

p.34
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the shelf life of platelets stored in ACD/CPD?

21 days.

p.2
Multiple Myeloma

What is the relationship between multiple myeloma and chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

CKD can occur with secondary hyperparathyroidism due to increased calcium.

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

What is the normal range for Prothrombin Time (PT)?

11 to 16 seconds.

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

What does Thrombin Time (TT) measure?

Fibrinogen levels.

p.40
Blood Group Genetics

What mnemonic is used to remember positive and negative blood groups?

TOP for Positive, NEeche for Negative.

p.22
Platelet Function and Disorders

What does the X-axis represent in the graph?

Time.

p.44
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

Why are heparin vacutainers not used for peripheral smears?

They make the background of the smear dark blue.

p.41
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the purpose of a platelet agitator?

To keep platelets in suspension and prevent clumping.

p.22
Platelet Function and Disorders

What color represents a normal person's blood in the graph?

Blue.

p.20
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the purpose of mixing studies in platelet aggregometry?

To identify whether a raised APTT is due to factor deficiency or high antibody count.

p.29
Blood Group Genetics

What indicates an invalid blood typing test?

If the blood has already clotted before testing.

p.20
Platelet Function and Disorders

What conditions are particularly assessed using mixing studies?

Conditions with high APTT, normal BT, and PT.

p.45
Coagulation Pathways

What is the preferred anticoagulant in a gray container?

Potassium Oxalate.

p.16
Coagulation Pathways

How can HITT and afibrinogenemia be differentiated?

By the reptilase test; HITT shows normal reptilase, while afibrinogenemia shows elevated reptilase.

p.34
Coagulation Pathways

What factors are present in Fresh Frozen Plasma?

Poorin factor 5 and factor 8.

p.42
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What colors of vacutainers contain EDTA?

White, Royal blue, Pink, Purple/Lavender.

p.24
Coagulation Pathways

What does TEG stand for in the context of coagulation?

Thromboelastography.

p.18
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What are the two types of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?

Macroangiopathic hemolytic anemia and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.

p.19
Coagulation Pathways

What are some risk factors for DIC?

Pregnancy, Meningococcemia, AML-M3.

p.25
Coagulation Pathways

What condition is indicated by decreased maximum amplitude?

Potential issues with platelet function, possibly due to platelet blockers.

p.41
Blood Group Genetics

What syndrome is associated with the Mcleod phenotype?

Non-cantbosis syndrome.

p.11
Coagulation Pathways

What is Scott syndrome?

A defect in the flipping of phosphatidylserine, affecting apoptosis and clotting.

p.18
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What happens to RBCs in patients with prosthetic valves?

RBCs may be fragmented, forming schistocytes.

p.37
Transfusion Reactions

What is Post-Transfusion Purpura?

A condition where anti-platelet antibodies form, typically 7-10 days after transfusion.

p.19
Coagulation Pathways

What tests show elevated levels in DIC?

Fibrin degradation products (FDP) and D-dimer.

p.32
Transfusion Reactions

What causes fever after blood transfusion?

The presence of white blood cells (WBC) that release cytokines (interleukins).

p.14
Platelet Function and Disorders

What are superficial bleeds associated with platelet defects?

Petechiae, purpura, mucosal bleeds.

p.7
Plasma Cell Leukemia

What is the association of Benes Jones proteinuria with Plasma Cell Leukemia?

It indicates the presence of light chains in urine.

p.35
Transfusion Reactions

What is the recommended ratio of RBC:PRP:FFP in massive transfusion?

1:1:1 to avoid dilutional coagulopathy.

p.26
Blood Group Genetics

What combination results in the AB blood group?

Fucosyl molecule + N-acetyl galactosamine + Galactose.

p.41
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is Penta transfusion?

A method of transfusion involving multiple components.

p.29
Blood Group Genetics

What does a positive reaction with Anti-A indicate?

The blood group is A+.

p.40
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is a gel card used for?

For blood typing and crossmatching.

p.25
Coagulation Pathways

What does the Alpha Angle in TEG measure?

The kinetics and speed of fibrin accumulation.

p.41
Transfusion Reactions

What does TAB stand for in transfusion terminology?

Transfusion Associated Bacterial infection.

p.9
Bone Marrow Findings

What is a Pawn Ball Megakaryocyte?

A megakaryocyte with 3 nuclei resembling a pawn ball, seen in Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS).

p.11
Coagulation Pathways

What is the role of platelet factor 4 (PF4)?

PF4 is involved in platelet aggregation and clotting.

p.22
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the initial optical density for both normal and patient blood samples?

100%.

p.42
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What is the best form of EDTA used in blood banking?

Dipotassium EDTA (K2 EDTA).

p.5
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What are the main components of a normal blood sample?

Albumin and three folded finger-like structures (alpha 1, alpha 2, beta proteins).

p.37
Transfusion Reactions

What does TACO stand for in the context of transfusion reactions?

Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload.

p.16
Coagulation Pathways

What is Hemophilia A caused by?

Factor 8 deficiency.

p.26
Blood Group Genetics

Who proposed the ABO blood grouping system?

Karl Landsteiner.

p.32
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the purpose of the extra pouch in the needle and bags working?

It serves as a filter.

p.35
Transfusion Reactions

What is the maximum time allowed to complete a transfusion after blood removal?

4 hours.

p.15
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the only elevated parameter in ITP?

Bleeding Time.

p.29
Blood Group Genetics

What does a positive reaction with Anti-D indicate?

The blood group is Rh positive.

p.8
Platelet Function and Disorders

How does the nucleus of a megakaryocyte divide?

By endomitosis.

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

Why is the light blue vacutainer made of plastic instead of glass?

Glass has a negative charge and causes blood clotting.

p.21
Platelet Function and Disorders

What does the binding of GPIIb/IIIa indicate?

Platelet aggregation.

p.11
Coagulation Pathways

What activates the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade?

The presence of a negative charge.

p.18
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What small blood vessel conditions are included in microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) and Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP).

p.30
Blood Group Genetics

What does the mnemonic 'BYG' stand for in the Gel Card test?

Anti-A, anti-B, anti-D.

p.19
Coagulation Pathways

What is the effect of too much clot formation in the body?

It breaks down the clot into fibrin degradation products.

p.37
Transfusion Reactions

What is GVHD in the context of transfusions?

Transfusion-associated Graft versus Host Disease.

p.39
Blood Group Genetics

Which technique is used for blood grouping as shown in the image?

Gel card for blood grouping.

p.21
Platelet Function and Disorders

What does a normal APTT indicate in mixing studies?

Factor deficiency.

p.28
Blood Group Genetics

What gene controls the Duffy antigen?

DARC gene.

p.5
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What does SPEP stand for?

Serum Protein Electrophoresis.

p.2
Multiple Myeloma

What is the significance of plasma cells in multiple myeloma?

Increased plasma cells produce monoclonal immunoglobulin.

p.34
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the platelet count range for Single Donor Platelets (SDP)?

30,000 - 50,000 platelets per microliter.

p.27
Blood Group Genetics

What is unique about the Bombay blood group?

It has no A antigen, B antigen, or any other antigen, but has anti-H antibodies.

p.25
Coagulation Pathways

What does a maximum amplitude of 55 to 75 mm indicate?

Normal clot strength.

p.14
Coagulation Pathways

What indicates a normal factor 13 in the urea clot solubility test?

No clot solubility.

p.47
Blood Donation and Transfusion

Which tube is used for coagulation studies?

Light blue.

p.22
Platelet Function and Disorders

What happens to the optical density of normal blood when Ristocetin, ADP, epinephrine, and collagen are added?

It decreases.

p.12
Coagulation Pathways

What does activated Factor 2a do?

Activates Factor 1, converting fibrinogen to fibrin.

p.5
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What does the presence of gamma antibodies indicate?

The presence of immunoglobulins in the blood.

p.22
Platelet Function and Disorders

What does it indicate if there is no fall in optical density in the patient's blood when ADP, epinephrine, and collagen are added?

Platelet aggregation defect, indicating Glanzmann thrombasthenia.

p.27
Blood Group Genetics

What is the universal donor blood group?

O blood group (no antigens).

p.47
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What type of tube is used for arterial blood gas (ABG) tests?

Green.

p.33
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What is the role of citrate in anticoagulants?

Citrate is a calcium chelator that prevents clot formation.

p.42
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What tests are included in the Pink top vacutainer?

Crossmatching for blood bank.

p.20
Platelet Function and Disorders

What indicates the presence of antibodies in mixing studies?

High APTT remains even after mixing with normal plasma, indicating antibodies prevent factors from working.

p.23
Coagulation Pathways

What is Thromboelastography (TEG) used for?

It is used in surgery, emergency departments, and intensive care units.

p.42
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What tests are included in the Royal blue top vacutainer?

Tests for trace elements (Cu, Zn, etc.).

p.16
Coagulation Pathways

What is the difference in APTT between Hemophilia A and B?

Both have elevated APTT, but they differ in the factor deficiency.

p.25
Coagulation Pathways

What is the effect of Tranexamic acid in coagulation?

It helps to reduce bleeding by inhibiting fibrinolysis.

p.42
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What tests are included in the White top vacutainer?

Plasma Borne Polymeric Filtration (PCR).

p.6
Multiple Myeloma

What is the significance of a plasma cell percentage greater than 10%?

It indicates multiple myeloma.

p.1
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What is the whitish area around the nucleus of a plasma cell called?

Perinuclear Halo.

p.5
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What are the parental markers for plasma cells?

CD 45, CD 19, CD 38.

p.39
Blood Group Genetics

What is the total number of wells in the blood grouping technique mentioned?

96 wells (12x8).

p.29
Blood Group Genetics

What is the significance of the Control in blood typing?

It ensures that the blood sample is normal saline; no clot should be seen.

p.23
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the sample type used for platelet testing?

Platelet-rich plasma.

p.16
Coagulation Pathways

What condition is characterized by low fibrinogen levels?

Hypofibrinogenemia.

p.22
Platelet Function and Disorders

What color represents a patient's blood in the graph?

Red.

p.8
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the normal platelet count range?

1.5 to 4.5 lakhs per microliter.

p.7
Plasma Cell Leukemia

What is the most common genetic deletion associated with Plasma Cell Leukemia?

Deletion of chromosome 6q.

p.12
Coagulation Pathways

What is the role of Factor 10 in the common pathway?

Activates Factor 2 in the presence of Factor 5.

p.6
Multiple Myeloma

What is the significance of a plasma cell percentage of 10% in smoldering multiple myeloma?

It indicates the presence of smoldering multiple myeloma.

p.21
Platelet Function and Disorders

What substances are added to platelet-rich plasma during aggregometry?

Ristocetin, ADP, epinephrine, and collagen.

p.19
Coagulation Pathways

What condition is also known as consumptive coagulopathy?

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC).

p.34
Coagulation Pathways

What components are abundant in Cryoprecipitate?

Factor 5, fibrinogen, and factor 13.

p.41
Blood Group Genetics

Which blood group system dysfunction correlates with the condition described?

Kell system.

p.38
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What are the risks associated with autologous blood transfusion?

No risk of HIV, ABS, HCV, allergies, infection, GVHD, or PTP.

p.26
Blood Group Genetics

Where is the H gene located?

On Chromosome 19.

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What is the effect of plasma cells releasing DKK1?

It blocks osteoblast production.

p.14
Bleeding Disorders

What is a common characteristic of hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia?

It runs in families and causes dilated vessels.

p.6
Multiple Myeloma

What is the threshold for Ig in smoldering multiple myeloma?

Ig >3 g/dL.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

What is the source of Von Willebrand Factor (VWF)?

Megakaryocytes, Weibel-Palade bodies of epithelial cells, and the liver.

p.30
Blood Group Genetics

What antibodies are added for each patient in an ELISA test?

Anti-A, anti-B, anti-D, and a control.

p.24
Coagulation Pathways

What is LY30 in TEG?

Lysis 30 minutes after maximum amplitude.

p.28
Blood Group Genetics

What are some methods for blood grouping?

Slide method, tube method, gel card method, ELISA.

p.10
Coagulation Pathways

What is released from endothelial cells when they are damaged?

Von Willebrand factor.

p.27
Blood Group Genetics

What are the characteristics of the Lewis blood group?

Lewis antigen and IgM antibodies are present; RBC does not synthesize Lewis antigen.

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What are common clinical features of multiple myeloma in elderly patients?

Bony lytic lesions, 'salt and pepper' skull, and low back pain.

p.27
Blood Group Genetics

What is the Kell phenotype deficiency known as?

Mcleod phenotype or Neuroacanthosis syndrome.

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What is the plasma cell percentage criterion for diagnosing multiple myeloma?

Plasma cells must be greater than 10% in the bone marrow.

p.12
Coagulation Pathways

What is the normal range for Bleeding Time (BT)?

2 to 9 minutes.

p.45
Coagulation Pathways

Which additives are included in the light blue vial for platelet function tests?

Citrate, Theophylline, Adenosine, and Dipyridamole.

p.15
Platelet Function and Disorders

What condition is associated with a defect in von Willebrand factor?

Von Willebrand disease.

p.38
Blood Donation and Transfusion

How is naming done in blood banks for apheresis?

Based on the components taken, e.g., Platelet Apheresis or Plasma Apheresis.

p.23
Platelet Function and Disorders

Which conditions are associated with Ristocetin problems?

Bernard-Soulier syndrome or Von Willebrand disease.

p.27
Blood Group Genetics

What is the universal recipient blood group?

AB blood group (no antibodies).

p.15
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is a key feature of platelet smears in ITP?

Giant platelets due to megakaryocyte hyperplasia in the bone marrow.

p.23
Platelet Function and Disorders

What chemicals are used to test for platelet aggregation?

ADP, epinephrine, and collagen.

p.10
Coagulation Pathways

What is the first step in clot formation?

Platelet adhesion.

p.36
Transfusion Reactions

What happens to blood pressure in TRALI?

Blood pressure may be low, while in TACO, it is usually normal.

p.28
Blood Group Genetics

What type of antibody is associated with Rh incompatibility?

IgG antibody.

p.30
Blood Donation and Transfusion

How many people can be tested at one time using an ELISA plate?

20-30 people.

p.16
Coagulation Pathways

What is the inheritance pattern of Hemophilia A and B?

X-linked recessive.

p.7
Plasma Cell Leukemia

What are large, homogeneous cytoplasmic inclusions in plasma cells called?

Dutcher bodies.

p.14
Platelet Function and Disorders

What are the types of platelet defects?

Qualitative defect and quantitative defect.

p.26
Blood Group Genetics

What combination results in the A blood group?

Fucosyl molecule + N-acetyl galactosamine.

p.37
Transfusion Reactions

What receptors do the antibodies in Post-Transfusion Purpura target?

GP IIIa receptors.

p.12
Coagulation Pathways

What is the function of Factor 13?

Stabilizes fibrin and strengthens blood clotting.

p.23
Coagulation Pathways

What does the TEG machine measure?

Platelets and clotting factors.

p.16
Coagulation Pathways

What is the treatment for Hemophilia B?

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP).

p.18
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What are the two types of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)?

Typical and atypical.

p.14
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is Idiopathic/Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)?

A condition where platelet count decreases due to IgG binding to platelets.

p.18
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What deficiency is associated with atypical Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome?

Factor H/I/CD46 deficiency.

p.24
Coagulation Pathways

What is the time taken to start forming a clot?

5 to 10 minutes.

p.37
Transfusion Reactions

What is a preventive measure for GVHD?

Giving irradiated blood to remove immunocompetent T cells.

p.18
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What is a key defect in Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)?

Defect in ADAMTS13, which breaks down multimers of VWF.

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What does the 'R' in the CRAB criteria indicate?

Renal insufficiency (creatinine level > 2 mg/dL).

p.32
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What are the bags used for pediatric blood transfusion called?

Pentabags.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

What characterizes VWD Type 1?

It is the most common and has a mild deficiency in VWF.

p.22
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the defect associated with the patient's blood showing minimal decline in optical density with Ristocetin?

GpIb/IX defect - Bernard-Soulier syndrome or Von Willebrand factor - Von Willebrand disease.

p.10
Coagulation Pathways

What factors are involved in platelet adhesion?

Gp1b/IX and von Willebrand factor (vWF).

p.24
Coagulation Pathways

What does MA represent in TEG?

Maximum amplitude, indicating clot stability, typically 55 to 73 mm.

p.45
Coagulation Pathways

What is the anticoagulant in a light blue top vial?

3% Trisodium citrate.

p.38
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution (ANH)?

Blood is collected immediately after anesthesia and before surgery, with volume replaced by crystalloids or colloids.

p.15
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the platelet count in Acute ITP?

< 50,000.

p.45
Coagulation Pathways

What is the blood to anticoagulant ratio for coagulation studies in a light blue vial?

1:9.

p.24
Coagulation Pathways

What is the significance of increased reaction time?

It indicates a problem with fibrinogen or clotting factors.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

What is the function of Von Willebrand Factor?

It acts as a carrier for factor 8.

p.24
Coagulation Pathways

What treatments are indicated for increased clotting time?

Fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate.

p.23
Coagulation Pathways

How does the TEG machine detect clot formation?

By sensing changes in a pin or needle as clots form around it.

p.24
Coagulation Pathways

What is the angle in TEG analysis?

Represents the kinetics of clot development, typically between 47 to 74 degrees.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

What is the half-life of VWF?

12 hours.

p.12
Coagulation Pathways

What does an increased Bleeding Time (BT) indicate?

Defects in platelets.

p.30
Blood Donation and Transfusion

How much blood is collected from donors weighing between 45-55 kg?

350 ml (with 49 ml anticoagulant).

p.37
Transfusion Reactions

What should be done when a transfusion reaction occurs?

Stop the blood transfusion immediately.

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What is the significance of the light chains ratio in multiple myeloma?

It is the ratio of involved to uninvolved light chains multiplied by 100.

p.15
Platelet Function and Disorders

What age group is typically affected by Acute ITP?

Children.

p.27
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the safest plasma for transfusion in emergencies?

AB plasma.

p.23
Coagulation Pathways

How quickly does TEG provide results?

Within 30 to 60 minutes.

p.11
Coagulation Pathways

What activates the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade?

Tissue injury.

p.33
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the shelf life of blood when using CPD-SAGM?

6 weeks or 42 days.

p.14
Coagulation Pathways

What are deep tissue bleeds associated with coagulation defects?

Intracranial bleeds and joint bleeds.

p.34
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What happens to the shelf life of Fresh Frozen Plasma once thawing occurs?

The shelf life is reduced to only 24 hours.

p.8
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the topography of megakaryocytes on biopsy?

Perisinusoidal.

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

What does Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) measure?

The intrinsic pathway and common pathway.

p.35
Transfusion Reactions

What is citrate toxicity and its effect during blood transfusion?

Citrate acts as a calcium chelator, leading to hypocalcemia and symptoms like tingling and numbness.

p.32
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the end product obtained after using the Leucoreduction Filter?

Leucoreduced RBC.

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

What factors are measured in APTT?

Factors 12, 11, 9, 8, 10, 5, 2, and 1.

p.30
Blood Donation and Transfusion

When is Blood Donation Day celebrated?

October 1st (Voluntary Blood Donation Day).

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

What are the classical laboratory findings in VWD?

BT high, PT normal, APTT high.

p.15
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is HITT?

Heparin Induced Thrombotic Thrombocytopenia.

p.32
Blood Donation and Transfusion

Why is it practically impossible to separate 10% of blood?

Because some other components will remain.

p.8
Platelet Function and Disorders

Do megakaryocytes divide as a whole cell?

No, only the nucleus divides.

p.6
Multiple Myeloma

What does MDE stand for in the context of multiple myeloma?

Myeloma-defining event.

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What is the relationship between calcium levels and bone formation in multiple myeloma?

Calcium increases in the blood as no bone is formed.

p.38
Blood Donation and Transfusion

How is blood collected during ANH?

From the surgical field using surgical drains.

p.18
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What is the typical cause of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)?

Associated with E. coli or Shigella, specifically strain O157:H7.

p.8
Platelet Function and Disorders

What do sinusoidal spaces contain?

Red blood cells (RBCs).

p.15
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the first-line treatment for Chronic ITP?

Steroids.

p.30
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the minimum hemoglobin level required for blood donation?

Greater than 12.5 g/dL.

p.15
Platelet Function and Disorders

What syndrome is characterized by a defect in GpIb/IX?

Bernard-Soulier syndrome.

p.10
Platelet Function and Disorders

What type of granules do platelets have?

Alpha granules.

p.33
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the storage temperature for fresh frozen plasma?

Less than -30 degrees Celsius.

p.26
Blood Group Genetics

Which blood group has the least H substance?

AB blood group.

p.4
Multiple Myeloma

What characterizes a Flame Cell?

It is an IgA type cell associated with multiple myeloma.

p.35
Transfusion Reactions

What is the definition of massive blood transfusion (MBT)?

Blood volume of the patient is replaced by more than one times the initial volume within 24 hours or 50% of total blood volume is replaced in 4 hours.

p.26
Blood Group Genetics

What combination results in the B blood group?

Fucosyl molecule + Galactose.

p.42
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What tests are included in the Tan top vacutainer?

For Lead in cases of lead poisoning.

p.19
Coagulation Pathways

What is the defect in Hemophilia A?

Factor 8 defect.

p.45
Coagulation Pathways

What is the anticoagulant used for automated ESR?

Trisodium citrate in a black vial.

p.11
Coagulation Pathways

What happens when phosphatidylserine flips to the outer membrane of platelets?

It provides a negative charge that activates the clotting pathway.

p.30
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the minimum weight requirement for blood donation?

Greater than 45 kg.

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

What is the normal range for APTT?

25 to 30 seconds.

p.15
Platelet Function and Disorders

What syndrome shows ocular cutaneous albinism and a defect in delta granules?

Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome.

p.26
Blood Group Genetics

What is required to calculate the amount of H substance?

Lectin and anti-H antibodies.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

What are the three types of Von Willebrand Disease?

Type 1, Type 2, and Type 3.

p.4
Multiple Myeloma

What is a key feature of plasma cells in multiple myeloma?

Eccentric nucleus and perinuclear halo.

p.46
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What do coagulating vacutainers separate?

Serum.

p.34
Platelet Function and Disorders

How does agitation affect the shelf life of platelet-rich plasma?

If the machine is working, the shelf life is 5 days; if it stops, it reduces to only 1 day.

p.10
Platelet Function and Disorders

What do platelets contain on their surface that aids in adhesion?

Gp1b/IX.

p.6
Multiple Myeloma

What is the treatment mentioned for targeted therapy in multiple myeloma?

Daratumumab.

p.42
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

How many times should the sample be mixed after collection?

8 times.

p.19
Coagulation Pathways

What is the defect in Hemophilia B?

Factor 9 defect.

p.42
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

Which vacutainer has EDTA as an anticoagulant?

Lavender top vial.

p.18
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What mnemonic is used to remember the features of HUS?

RAT: Renal involvement, Anemia (hemolytic), Thrombocytopenia.

p.18
Plasma Cell Dyscrasia

What happens to platelets in Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)?

Platelets are decreased and bleeding time (BT) increases.

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What does the 'B' in the CRAB criteria refer to?

Bony lytic lesions.

p.4
Multiple Myeloma

What is the significance of sheets of plasma cells?

They indicate the presence of multiple myeloma.

p.46
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

How many times should coagulating vacutainers be inverted?

5-6 times.

p.45
Coagulation Pathways

What is the blood to anticoagulant ratio for ESR estimation in a light blue vial?

1:4.

p.12
Coagulation Pathways

What are the Vitamin K dependent factors?

Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

What is the half-life of factor 8?

2.4 hours.

p.38
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What happens to unused blood components during apheresis?

They are returned to the donor.

p.32
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the purpose of the Leucoreduction Filter?

To filter out white blood cells from the blood.

p.4
Multiple Myeloma

What happens to Zeta potential in multiple myeloma?

There is a loss of Zeta potential, causing RBCs to stick together and form rouleaux.

p.35
Transfusion Reactions

What can cause dilutional coagulopathy during blood transfusions?

Factors getting diluted when many blood products are transfused, leading to bleeding.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

Why is VWD referred to as pseudoh hemophilia?

Because it resembles hemophilia A.

p.4
Bone Marrow Findings

What is a Dutcher Body?

An intranuclear inclusion found in bone marrow aspirate.

p.4
Bone Marrow Findings

What is a MOTT/mulberry cell?

A type of cell found in bone marrow aspirate associated with multiple myeloma.

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

What test is necessary to diagnose Factor 13 deficiency?

A urea clot solubility test.

p.46
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What colors are coagulating vacutainers?

Red, Golden yellow, Bright yellow, Orange.

p.38
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the function of an apheresis machine?

To separate blood into components using centrifugation.

p.33
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What temperature should blood components be stored at?

In a refrigerator at 2-6 degrees Celsius.

p.35
Transfusion Reactions

What complication can arise from the use of CPDA or SAGM in blood transfusions?

Metabolic alkalosis due to increased bicarbonate production.

p.33
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the shelf life of platelet-rich plasma?

Only 5 days.

p.38
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What components can be separated using an apheresis machine?

RBC, platelets, and fresh frozen plasma.

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What does the 'C' in the CRAB criteria for multiple myeloma stand for?

Calcium levels elevated (>11 gm/dL).

p.33
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What is added to anticoagulants for cell nutrition?

Dextrose or glucose.

p.35
Transfusion Reactions

What is the effect of SAGM on blood glucose levels?

It can cause initial hyperglycemia followed by hypoglycemia.

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What does the 'A' in the CRAB criteria represent?

Anemia (Hb < 10 g/dL).

p.4
Multiple Myeloma

What is the composition of findings in multiple myeloma?

Antibodies (Ig) and plasma cells.

p.46
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What is the clotting time for a Golden Yellow Vacutainer?

30 minutes.

p.11
Coagulation Pathways

What is the mnemonic for remembering the factors that activate factor 10?

TENe 10.

p.37
Transfusion Reactions

What causes GVHD?

An immunity discrepancy between donor and recipient, where the donor is immunocompetent and the recipient is immunocompromised.

p.27
Blood Group Genetics

What are acanthocytes?

White blood cells with spikes.

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What is the most commonly involved immunoglobulin in multiple myeloma?

IgG.

p.19
Coagulation Pathways

What does a defect in platelets indicate?

A problem in bleeding time.

p.12
Coagulation Pathways

What is the normal range for Clotting Time (CT)?

8 to 15 minutes.

p.32
Blood Donation and Transfusion

What is the capacity of each of the four small bags used in pediatric blood transfusion?

100-120 ml each.

p.15
Platelet Function and Disorders

What happens to platelets in HIT?

The spleen removes entire platelets, resulting in thrombocytopenia.

p.3
Multiple Myeloma

What does the 'M' in the CRAB criteria indicate?

MRI shows at least 1 lesion of >5 mm.

p.46
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What is the primary use of BlackTop Vacutainers?

For Automated ESR tests.

p.46
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What is the use of Bright Yellow Vacutainers?

For HLA typing and paternity testing.

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

How is the INR calculated?

By dividing the patient's PT by the PT of a normal person.

p.32
Blood Donation and Transfusion

How is CMV tested in other countries compared to India?

In other countries, CMV is tested while donating blood, but not in India.

p.4
Multiple Myeloma

What causes RBCs to not stick to each other?

A negative charge called Zeta potential.

p.37
Transfusion Reactions

What organs can be damaged by GVHD?

Skin, intestines, and liver.

p.26
Blood Group Genetics

Which blood group has the maximum H substance?

O blood group.

p.4
Bone Marrow Findings

What is a Russell Body?

A cytoplasmic inclusion found in bone marrow aspirate.

p.15
Platelet Function and Disorders

What is the mechanism of Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

Heparin binds to PF4, forming a complex that leads to antibody formation.

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

What condition is indicated by elevated TT?

Afibrinogenemia or Hypofibrinogenemia.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

What characterizes VWD Type 2?

It has a qualitative defect in VWF.

p.46
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What anticoagulant is used in BlackTop Vacutainers?

Trisodium citrate.

p.46
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What is the clotting time for a Red Vacutainer?

60 minutes.

p.46
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What does the Bright Yellow Vacutainer contain?

Acid citrate dextrose (ACD).

p.10
Coagulation Pathways

What are Weibel-Palade bodies?

Structures present in endothelial cells that contain von Willebrand factor and P-selectin.

p.26
Blood Group Genetics

What characterizes the O blood group?

Fucosyl molecule not adding to any molecule.

p.14
Platelet Function and Disorders

What blood test results are indicative of ITP?

Low platelet count and elevated bleeding time.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

How does VWD deficiency affect factor 8?

It indirectly causes factor 8 deficiency.

p.19
Coagulation Pathways

What does a defect in clotting factors indicate?

A problem in APTT and PT.

p.37
Transfusion Reactions

What is the maximum risk of contamination associated with?

Platelet-rich plasma (PRP) due to its storage temperature of 20-24°C.

p.33
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

What is the purpose of adding adenine to anticoagulants?

To provide energy to cells (ATP).

p.13
Coagulation Pathways

What is the significance of Factor 13 deficiency?

It causes umbilical cord stump bleeding.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

What is given in both VWD and hemophilia A?

Cryoprecipitate.

p.37
Transfusion Reactions

What samples should be collected during a transfusion reaction?

Blood samples in an EDTA vial and a plain red vial, along with urine for hemoglobinuria testing.

p.17
Coagulation Pathways

What characterizes VWD Type 3?

It is the most severe with zero VWF.

p.46
Anticoagulants and Blood Collection

Which tests are preferred with coagulating vacutainers?

Hormone profile tests like T3, T4, HCG, Prolactin, LH, FSH, Testosterone, KFT, and LFT.

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